NDA 2021 form released, Full details and other information is mentioned in the article

(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 19.01.2021)
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (I), 2021
(Commission’s Website http://upsc.gov.in)
IMPORTANT
1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the
stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of an Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his
candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up
only after the candidate has qualified for the interview/Personality Test.
2. HOW TO APPLY
2.1 Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have
been given in Appendix-II (A) Detailed instructions are available on the above-mentioned website.
2.2 The Commission has introduced the facility of withdrawal of application
for those candidates who do not want to appear for the Examination. In this regard,
Instructions are mentioned in Appendix-II (B) of this Examination Notice.
2.3 Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/
Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other
photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID
will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application
form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online
Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the
candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/SSB.
3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS:
(i) The Online Applications can be filled up to 19th January 2021 till 6:00 PM.
(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 27.01.2021 to 02.02.2021 till
6:00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding the withdrawal of Applications are available at
Appendix-II (B).
4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the
commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available
on the UPSC website (upsconline.nic.in) for being downloaded by candidates.
No Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide
2
valid & active e-mail id while filling up the online application form as the
The commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be a penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.
6. For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates
must use a black ball pen only Pens with any other color are prohibited. Do not
use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any
omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer
sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to
read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the
Notice.
7. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:
In case of any guidances/information/clarification regarding their application,
candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’
of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-
23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.
8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:
(a)The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager, or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smartwatches
etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories
either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication
device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these
instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future
examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items
including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the
examination, as the arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured. The commission will
not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT http://upsconline.nic.in
ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.

1

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.03/2021-NDA-I DATED 30.12.2020
(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 19.01.2021)
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (I), 2021
(Commission’s Website http://upsc.gov.in)
IMPORTANT
1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the
stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his
candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up
only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.
2. HOW TO APPLY
2.1 Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have
been given in the Appendix-II (A) Detailed instructions are available on the above
mentioned website.
2.2 The Commission has introduced the facility of withdrawal of Application
for those candidates who do not want to appear for the Examination. In this regard,
Instructions are mentioned in Appendix-II (B) of this Examination Notice.
2.3 Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/
Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other
photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID
will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application
form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online
Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the
candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/SSB.
3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS:
(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 19th January, 2021 till 6:00 PM.
(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 27.01.2021 to 02.02.2021 till
6:00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of Applications is available at
Appendix-II (B).
4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the
commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available
on the UPSC website (upsconline.nic.in) for being downloaded by candidates.
No Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide
2
valid & active e-mail id while filling up online application form as the
Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.
5. PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.
6. For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates
must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are prohibited. Do not
use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any
omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer
sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to
read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the
Notice.
7. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:
In case of any guidances/information/clarification regarding their application,
candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’
of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-
23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.
8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:
(a)The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches
etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories
either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication
device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these
instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future
examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item
including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the
examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured. Commission will
not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT http://upsconline.nic.in
ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
3
F.No.7/2/2020.E.1(B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union
Public Service Commission on 18th April, 2021 for admission to the
Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 147th Course, and
for the 109th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from
2nd January, 2022.
The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be
changed at the discretion of the Commission.
The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this
examination will be as under :—

National Defence
Academy
: 370 to include 208 for Army, 42 for
Navy and 120 for Air Force
(including 28 for ground Duties)
Naval Academy
(10+2 Cadet Entry
Scheme)
: 30
Total : 400
Vacancies are provisional and may be changed depending on the
availability of training capacity of National Defence Academy and
Indian Naval Academy.
N.B. (i) A candidate is required to specify clearly in the Online
Application Form the Services for which he wishes to be considered
in the order of his preference [1 to 4]. He is also advised to indicate
as many preferences as he wishes to opt so that having regard to
his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his
preferences when making appointments.
(ii) Candidates should note that they will be considered for
appointment to those services only for which they express their
preferences and for no other service(s). No request for
addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a
candidate in his application will be entertained by the
Commission.
(iii) Admission to the above courses will be made on the results
of the written examination to be conducted by the Commission
followed by intelligence and personality test by the Services
Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written
examination.

4
2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:
The Examination will be held at the following Centres :
Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Bengaluru,
Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi,
Dharwad, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur,
Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai,
Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi,
Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram,
Tirupati, Udaipur and Vishakhapatnam.
Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the
number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except
Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be
on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a
particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants,
who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be
required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants
are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get
a Centre of their choice.
N.B. : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission
reserves the right to change the Centres at their discretion if the
situation demands.
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the
time table and place or places of examination. Candidates should
note that no request for change of centre will be granted.
3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:
(a) Nationality : A candidate must be unmarried male and must
be :
(i) a citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan,
Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda,
the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and
Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in
India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii),
above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility
has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the
case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

5
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July,
2002 and not later than 1st July, 2005 are eligible.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in
the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a
certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to
Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates
maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper
authority of the University or in the Secondary School
Examination or an equivalent examination certificates. These
certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration
of the result of the written part of the examination. No other
document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts
from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be
accepted. The expression Matriculation/ Secondary School
Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the date of birth as
recorded in the Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination
Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of
submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission
and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or
granted.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a date of birth
has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the
Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no
change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent
examination on any ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering
their date of birth in the respective column of the Online
Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any
subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from
the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination
certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the
Commission under the Rules.
NOTE 4 : The candidates should also note that no
addition/deletion/any changes are allowed in online application
form in the NDA & NA Examination in any circumstances once it is
submitted.
NOTE 5 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they
complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent
to the date of his application though successful at this or any
subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A
candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will
be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the
Government.
6
(c) Educational Qualifications:
(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class
pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent
examination conducted by a State Education Board or a
University.
(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence
Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian
Naval Academy :—12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent
conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2
pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also
apply for this examination.
Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not
produce Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at
the time of SSB interview should forward duly self attested
Photocopies to ‘Directorate General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West
Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066’ and for Naval Academy
candidates to ‘Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room
No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011’ by 24th
December, 2021 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All
other candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2
pass or equivalent certificates in original at the time of attending
the SSB interview and have got the same verified by the SSB
authorities are not required to submit the same to Army HQ or
Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in original issued by the
Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases where
Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates. Certified true
copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not be accepted.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who
does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as
educationally qualified provided that he possesses qualifications,
the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies
his admission to the examination.
NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not
eligible for this examination.
NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th
class or equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the
UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special
concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of
passing the 12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed
date (i.e. 24th December, 2021) and no request for extending this date
will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of
Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or
any other ground whatsoever.
7
NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence
from holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services shall
not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted,
their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE 4 : Those candidates, who have failed CPSS/PABT earlier,
are now eligible for Air Force in Ground Duty branches if they fill
their willingness in the Online Application Form available at the
Commission’s website.
(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards
for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy
Examination (I), 2021 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.
(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary
grounds from any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not
eligible to apply.
4. FEE
Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of
JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from
payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one
hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI
by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India or
by using Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.
N.B. 1 : Applicants who opt for “Pay by Cash” mode, should print
the system generated Pay-in-slip during Part-II registration and
deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working
day only. “Pay by Cash” mode option will be deactivated at
23:59 hours of 18.01.2021 i.e. one day before the closing date;
however, applicants who have generated their Pay-in-slip before it
is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during
banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are
unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking
hours at SBI Branch, for reason whatsoever, even if holding a
valid Pay-in-Slip, will have no other offline option but to opt for
online Debit/Credit Card or Internet Banking Payment mode on
the closing date i.e. till 6:00 P.M. of 19.01.2021.
N.B. 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee
can be made only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of
fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable.
Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless
remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.
N.B. 3 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any
circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other
examination or selection.
8
N.B. 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have
not been received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious
payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first
instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on
the Commission’s website within two weeks after the last day of
submission of online application. The applicants shall be required
to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the
date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the
Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee
payment cases will be considered and their applications will be
revived, if they are otherwise eligible.
NOTE-1 : Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled
Tribes and those specified in Note 2 below are not required to pay
any fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC candidates
and they are required to pay the full prescribed fee.
NOTE-2 : The sons of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned
Officers/Non-Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and
equivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not
required to pay the prescribed fee if they are studying in Military
School (formerly known as King George’s School)/Sainik School
run by Sainik Schools Society.
[N.B. : A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required
to be obtained by all such candidates from the Principals
concerned individually and produced for verification at the
time of SSB Test/Interview by the candidates who are
declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.]
5. HOW TO APPLY:
Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website
upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online
applications are available on the above-mentioned website.
NOTE-1 : The applicants are advised to submit only single
application; however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he
submits another/multiple applications, then he must ensure that
application with the higher RID is complete in all respects like
applicants’ details, examination centre, photograph, signature,
photo identity card document, fee etc. The applicants who are
submitting multiple applications should note that only the
applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained
by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be
adjusted against any other RID.
NOTE-2: Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz.
Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/
School Photo ID/Any other photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to
be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application
form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with
9
the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all
future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID
while appearing for examination/SSB.

NOTE-3 : All candidates whether already in Government Service
including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors
(including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy,
Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as
Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of Rashtriya Military Schools
(formerly known as Military Schools) and Sainik Schools run by
Sainik Schools Society, Government owned industrial
undertakings or other similar organizations or in private
employment should apply online direct to the Commission.
N.B. (a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in
permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees
other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under
the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates serving in the Armed
Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the
Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College
(previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun), Students of
Military Schools formerly known as King George’s Schools and
Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society are required to
inform their Head of Office/Department, Commanding Officer,
Principals of College/School concerned, as the case may be, in
writing that they have applied for this examination. Candidates
should note that in case a communication is received by the
Commission from their employer/authority concerned withholding
permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the
examination, their applications will be liable to be
rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
NOTE-4: WHILE FILLING IN THE APPLICATION FORM, THE
CANDIDATE SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT HIS CHOICE
FOR THE CENTRE FOR THE EXAMINATION.
IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A CENTRE OTHER
THAN THE ONE INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS EADMISSION CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS OF SUCH A
CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE
WILL BE LIABLE TO CANCELLATION.
NOTE-5 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE
(UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE)
OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY
REJECTED. NO REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE
REGARDING SUCH REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED
UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES. CANDIDATES ARE NOT
REQUIRED TO SUBMIT ALONG WITH THEIR APPLICATIONS ANY
CERTIFICATE IN SUPPORT OF THEIR CLAIMS REGARDING AGE,
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES
AND FEE REMISSION ETC EXCEPT THE PHOTO ID CARD. THEY
SHOULD THEREFORE, ENSURE THAT THEY FULFIL ALL THE
10
ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
EXAMINATION. THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION WILL
ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY PROVISIONAL. IF ON
VERIFICATION AT ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT THEY
DO NOT FULFIL ALL ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS, THEIR
CANDIDATURE WILL BE CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF THE
WRITTEN PART OF THE EXAMINATION IS LIKELY TO BE
DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF JUNE, 2021. All the candidates
who have successfully qualified in the written examination are
required to register themselves online on Directorate General of
Recruiting website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in, with the same Email ID as provided to UPSC while filling UPSC online application.
Candidates must ensure that their e-mail IDs given in their online
applications are valid and active. These candidates would then be
allotted Selection Centres through the aforesaid website. In case of
any problems/queries, candidates should contact Directorate
General of Recruiting on the telephone numbers given on their
website or through feedback / query module after logging on to
their profile.
NOTE-6 : CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE
NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR ORIGINAL CERTIFICATE OF
AGE AND EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION EITHER TO
DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF RECRUITING, ARMY HQ, WEST
BLOCK-III, RK PURAM, NEW DELHI-110066 OR TO NAVAL
HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R SECTION, ‘C’ WING, SENA
BHAWAN, NEW DELHI-110011.
ALL CANDIDATES CALLED FOR SSB INTERVIEW MUST
CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR
EQUIVALENT EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES
SELECTION BOARD (SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE
PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY AT THE SSB
INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW. THE ORIGINALS
WILL BE RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2 EXAMINATION
MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR
MARKS SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW. IF ANY OF THEIR
CLAIMS IS FOUND TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER
THEMSELVES LIABLE TO DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE
COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE FOLLOWING PROVISIONS:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be
guilty of :—
(i) Obtaining support for his candidature by the following means,
namely :—
(a) offering illegal gratification to; or
(b) applying pressure on; or
(c) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person
connected with the conduct of the examination; or
11
(ii) impersonation; or
(iii) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been
tampered with; or
(v) uploading irrelevant photos in the application form in place
of actual photo/signature.
(vi) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing
material information; or
(vii) resorting to the following means in connection with his
candidature for the examination, namely :—
(a) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(b) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with
secret work relating to the examination;
(c) influencing the examiners; or
(viii) being in possession of or using unfair means during the
examination; or
(ix) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant
matter in the scripts; or
(x) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the
scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination,
creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(xi) harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the
Commission for the conduct of their examination; or
(xii) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in
switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or
programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart
watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories either in working or switched
off mode capable of being used as a communication device
during the examination; or
(xiii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with
their admission certificates permitting them to take the
examination; or
(xiv) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the
commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing
clauses;
may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal
prosecution, be liable :—
(a) to be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination
for which he is a candidate; and/or
(b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :—
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held
by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under
them; and
12
(c) if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary
action under the appropriate rules :
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed
except after :—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such
representation in writing as he may wish to make in that
behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the
candidate within the period allowed to him into
consideration.
Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of
colluding with a candidate (s) in committing or abetting the
commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (i) to (xiii)
above render himself liable to action in terms of the Clause (xiv).
6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF
APPLICATIONS:
(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 19th January, 2021
till 6:00 PM.
(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 27.01.2021 to
02.02.2021 till 6:00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding
withdrawal of Applications is available at Appendix-II (B).
7. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:
Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for
a particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service,
shall be entitled for AC III Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare
including reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian
limits. Candidates who apply again for the same type of
Commission will not be entitled to travelling allowance on any
subsequent occasion.

8. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION / ARMY /
NAVAL /AIR HEADQUARTERS:
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the
candidates about their candidature except in the following
cases :
(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card
three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The
e-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website
[upsc.gov.in] for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card
will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admit Card the
candidate must have his vital parameters like RID & Date of
Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, father’s
name & Date of Birth available with him.

13
(ii) If a candidate does not receive his e-Admit Card or any other
communication regarding his candidature for the examination
one week before the commencement of the examination, he
should at once contact the Commission. Information in this
regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located
in the Commission’s Office either in person or over Phone Nos.
011–23385271/011–23381125/011–23098543 Extn 4119,
4120. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s
Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his e-Admit
Card at least one week before the examination, he himself will be
solely responsible for non-receipt of his e-Admit Card.
(iii) No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the
examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the
examination. On receipt of e-Admit Card, check it carefully and
bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of the UPSC
immediately. The courses to which the candidates are admitted
will be according to their eligibility as per educational
qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by
the candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the
examination will be purely provisional based on the information
given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to
verification of all the eligibility conditions.
(iv) If a candidate receives an e-Admit Card in respect of some
other candidate on account of processing error, it should be
notified to the Commission with a request to issue the correct eAdmit Card. Candidates may note that they will not be allowed
to take the examination on the strength of an e-Admit Card
issued in respect of another candidate.
(v) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the
application of a candidate and his eligibility or otherwise for
admission to the Examination shall be final.
(vi) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card
in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
(vii) Candidates must ensure that their e.mail Ids given in
their online applications are valid and active.
IMPORTANT : All Communications to the Commission should
invariably contain the following particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Registration ID (RID).
3. Roll Number (if received).
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
5. Postal Address as given in the application.
N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars
may not be attended to.
14
N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate
after an examination has been held and it does not give his full
name and roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be
taken thereon. Candidates recommended by the Commission for
interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their
addresses subsequent to the submission of their applications for
the examination should immediately after announcement of the
result of the written part of the examination notify the changed
address also to :—
For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters,
A.G’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K.
Puram, New Delhi-110066, Phone No. 26175473.
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice— Naval
Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R
Section, R. No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan,New Delhi-110011,
Phone No. 23010097/23011282.
For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Air Headquarters,
Directorate of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ‘J’
Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610..
FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE
THE CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE
EVENT OF HIS NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR
INTERVIEW BY THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.
AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE
CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES
FOR THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW :-
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in
Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by
the Services Selection Board should address enquiries or requests,
if any, relating to their interview or visit website of respective
service headquarters after 20 days from the announcement of
written results as follows :—
For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters,
AG’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K.
Puram, New Delhi – 110 066, Phone No. 26175473 or
joinindianarmy.nic.in
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice—Naval
Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, O.I. & R.
Section, Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011,
Phone No. 23010097/Email : officer-navy@nic.in or
joinindiannavy.gov.in
15
For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Air Headquarters,
Directorate of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ‘J’
Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 or
www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in
Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date
intimated to them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for
postponing interview will only be considered in exceptional
circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for
which Army Headquarters will be the sole deciding authority. Such
requests should be addressed to the Administrative Officer of the
Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has been
received. No action will be taken on letters received by
Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in
the written examination is likely to be held during the months of
July, 2021 to September, 2021 or as suitable to Recruiting
Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit list, joining
instructions and any other relevant information regarding selection
process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
9. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN
EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES,
ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO
THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED
CANDIDATES:
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of
candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the
written examination as fixed by the Commission at their
discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a Services
Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where
candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet
Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on
Officers Potentiality and those for the Air Force in addition to the
above will have to qualify Computerised Pilot Selection
System (CPSS). Candidates with Air Force as one of the choice
would also undergo CPSS if they qualify SSB and are willing.
TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE
Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude
Test and Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection
Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All
the candidates will be put to stage-one test on first day of reporting
at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection
Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be
admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates
who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original
Certificates along with one photocopy each of : (i) Original
Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of
16
birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or equivalent in support of
educational qualification.
Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and
undergo the test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be
entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from
Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the
course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the
Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any
person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be
required to sign a certificate to this effect.
To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy
and Air Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks
separately in (i) Written examination as fixed by the Commission at
their discretion and (ii) Officer Potentiality Test as fixed by the
Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above
candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates
as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for flying branch
of Air Force, should separately qualify the CPSS.
Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be
placed in a single combined list on the basis of total marks
secured by them in the Written Examination and the Services
Selection Board Tests. The final allocation/selection for admission
to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National Defence Academy and
10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be made
upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility,
medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The
candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple
Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with
reference to their order or preferences and in the event of their
final allocation/ selection to one Service/Course, they will not be
considered for admission to other remaining Services/Courses.
N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR
FORCE IS GIVEN COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM
(CPSS) (PILOT APTITUDE TEST) ONLY ONCE. THE GRADES
SECURED BY HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL THEREFORE
HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE HAS
WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE
WHO FAILS IN THE CPSS CANNOT APPLY FOR ADMISSION TO
THE NATIONAL
DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAMINATION FOR THE FLYING
BRANCH OF AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL DUTIES (PILOT)
BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM.
Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection
System (CPSS) for any previous NDA course should submit their
application for this examination for the Air Force Wing only if they
17
have been notified as having qualified in CPSS. In case a candidate
has failed in CPSS/not tested for CPSS for being HWG, the
candidate would be considered for Ground Duty branch of IAF,
Navy, Army and NAVAC as per his choices.
The form and manner of communication of the result of the
examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the
Commission at their discretion and the Commission will not enter
into correspondence with them regarding the result.
Success in the examination confers no right of
admission to the Academy. A candidate must satisfy the
appointing authority that he is suitable in all respects for
admission to the Academy.
10. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING
COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the
National Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of
Indian Naval Academy but were removed there from for lack of
officer-like qualities or on disciplinary grounds will not be admitted
to the Academy.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the
National Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical
grounds or left the above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible
for admission to the Academy provided they satisfy the medical
and other prescribed conditions.
11. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the
examination, (b) guidelines for filling up the online Application
Form (c) Special Instructions to candidates for objective type tests,
(d) Physical standards for admission to the National Defence
Academy and Naval Academy and (e) Brief particulars of the
service etc., for candidates joining the National Defence Academy
and Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV and V
respectively.
12. WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS: THE COMMISSION HAS
INTRODUCED THE FACILITY OF WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION
FOR THOSE CANDIDATES WHO DO NOT WANT TO APPEAR FOR
THE EXAMINATION. INSTRUCTIONS ARE GIVEN IN APPENDIX-II
(B).
(Om Prakash)
Under Secretary
Union Public Service Commission
18

APPENDIX-I
(The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination)
A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and
the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:—
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600

Total 900
SSB Test/Interview: 900
2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS
(TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF
GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS
WELL AS ENGLISH.
3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions
involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be
set.
4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no
circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write
answers for them.
5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in
any or all the subjects at the examination.
6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or
Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type
papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same
inside the Examination Hall.
B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
PAPER-I
MATHEMATICS
(Code No. 01)
(Maximum Marks-300)
1. ALGEBRA
Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams.
De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex
numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of
19
unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in
decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic,
Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with
real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by
graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its
applications. Logarithms and their applications.
2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :
Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a
matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a
square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear
equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by
Matrix Method.
3. TRIGONOMETRY :
Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians.
Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference
formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric
functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of
triangles.
4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula.
Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines.
Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard
and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and
hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three
dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines
and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and
direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms.
Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation
of a sphere.
5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :
Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and
graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and
inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples.
Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on
continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical
and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications.
Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of
a function with respect to another function, derivative of a
composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and
decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of
maxima and minima.
6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :
20
Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by
substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic
expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions.
Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane
regions bounded by curves—applications.
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation,
formation of a differential equation by examples. General and
particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order
and first degree differential equations of various types—examples.
Application in problems of growth and decay.
7. VECTOR ALGEBRA :
Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and
direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors,
scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of
two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors.
Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in
geometrical problems.
8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :
Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution,
cumulative frequency distribution—examples. Graphical
representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon—
examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and
mode. Variance and standard deviation—determination and
comparison. Correlation and regression.
Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated
sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events,
impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events.
Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of
probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary
theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability,
Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on
a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random
experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.
PAPER-II
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
(Maximum Marks—600)
Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200)
The question paper in English will be designed to test the
candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of
words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and
usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text
to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.
Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400)
21
The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly
cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social
Studies, Geography and Current Events.
– The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these
subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be
regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature
not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked.
Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and
intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics)
Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight,
Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes,
Pressure Barometer.
Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s
Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces,
Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas
of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of
Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of
transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties, Simple
musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection
and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet,
Earth as a Magnet.
Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Nonconductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating,
Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of
Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays.
General Principles in the working of the following:
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers,
Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask,
Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope,
Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety
Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures
and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical
Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems).
Properties of Air and Water.
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen,
Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids,
bases and salts. Carbon—different forms. Fertilizers—Natural and
Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap,
Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and GunPowder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic
Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.

22
Section ‘C’ (General Science)
Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells,
Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and
Animals.
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs.
Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.
Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced
Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses.
Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and
Civilisation.
Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian
Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five
Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community
Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and
Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration
and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution,
Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science
and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations,
Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India
in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography)
The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes,
Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and
their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their
classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical,
Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides
Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric
Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity;
Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural
regions of the World. Regional Geography of India—Climate,
Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and
distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities. Important Sea
ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of
Imports and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events)
Knowledge of Important events that have happened in
India in the recent years. Current important world events.
Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including
those connected with cultural activities and sports.
23
NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper,
questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry
approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages
respectively.
Intelligence and Personality Test
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process
– stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I
are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are
Picture Perception * Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates
will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR
Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks,
Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted
over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website
joinindianarmy.nic.in.

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three
different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group
Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate
weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only
after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate
holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are
also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in
the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have
equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to
bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their
trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are
Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
APPENDIX–II (A)
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE
APPLICATION
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
upsconline.nic.in .
Salient Features of the Online Applications Form are given
hereunder:
 Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are
available on the above mentioned website.
 Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application
form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II.
24
 The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one
hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in
Note-2 of Para 4 of the Notice who are exempted from payment of
fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash
or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India or by using
any Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.
 Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar
Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School
Photo ID/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central
Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided
by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The
same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online
Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future
referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while
appearing for examination/SSB.
 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have
his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in
such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and
must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and
signature.
 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have
his photo identity card document in PDF format only. The digital
size of PDF file should not exceed 300 KB and must not be less
than 20 KB.
 The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 30th
December, 2020 to 19th January, 2021 till 6:00 PM.
 Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications.
However, if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant
submits multiple applications then he must ensure that the
applications with higher RID is complete in all respects.
 In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID
shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one
RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
 The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application
Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the
Commission may use electronic mode of communication while
contacting them at different stages of examination process.
 The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular
intervals and ensure that the email addresses ending with @nic.in
are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or
any other folder.
 Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time
without waiting for the last date for submission of online
application. Moreover, the Commission has introduced
provision of withdrawal of application for the candidate, who
does not want to appear at the Examination, he/she may
withdraw his/her application.

25
Appendix-II (B)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO WITHDRAW
APPLICATION
1. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions
carefully before filling up the request for withdrawal of
application.
2. The Commission has provided the withdrawal facility from
27.01.2021 to 02.02.2021 (till 6:00 PM) to those
candidates who do not want to appear at this Examination.
3. Candidates are advised to provide the details of registered
application with registration-id which was completed and
submitted finally. There is no provision for withdrawing of
incomplete applications.
4. Before making the request for withdrawal, candidate must
ensure that they have access to the registered mobile
number and email-id which were provided by them at the
time of submission of application. Separate OTPs will be sent
by the Commission on the registered mobile number and
email-id. Request for withdrawal will be accepted only after it
is confirmed by validating the OTP details sent on
candidate’s mobile and email-id. Such OTPs will be valid for
30 Minutes only.
5. Request for generating OTP for withdrawal of
application will be accepted only till 5:30 PM on
02.02.2021.
6. If a candidate has submitted more than one application
form then the higher registration-id of Application (latest)
will be considered for withdrawal and all earlier applications
will be treated as cancelled automatically.
7. After the final acceptance of the request for online
withdrawal of application, the candidate must print the
authenticated receipt. Once application has been withdrawn
by the candidate, it cannot be revived in future.
8. UPSC has no provision to refund any fee amount paid by
candidates, so in case of successful withdrawal of
application the fees will not be refunded.
9. On successful completion of withdrawal of application, an
auto-generated email and SMS will be sent on candidate’s
registered email-id and mobile. In case any candidate has
not submitted the request for withdrawal of application
he/she may contact UPSC on email-id: upscsoap@nic.in
immediately.
26
10. Candidates are advised not to share the OTPs received
on email and SMS to anybody.
APPENDIX–III
Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type
tests
1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written)a
good quality Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work
will be supplied by the invigilator.
2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other
than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets,
electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical
and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps,
slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to
earlier session(s) etc.
Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other
communication devices are not allowed inside the
premises where the examination is being conducted.
Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future
examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to
bring any of the banned items including mobile
phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the
examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot
be assured. Candidates are advised not to bring any
valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as
safe keeping of the same cannot be assured.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this
regard.
3. Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE
MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION
PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every
question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be
treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above for that question.
27
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the
candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
4. Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate
nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give
nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any
description.
5. Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create
disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff
employed by the Commission for the conduct of the
examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
6. Answer Sheet particulars
(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by
test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at
the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top.
Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may
be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the
purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the
above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are
given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on
the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report
immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer
sheet replaced.
(ii) Candidates should note that any
omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in
the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable
for rejection.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please
check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any
unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it
replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and
subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific
items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test
booklet/sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous
marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the
reverse of the answer sheet.
9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised
machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and
filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen
only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should
use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the
candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into
28
account while evaluating the answer sheets on
computerised machines, they should make these entries
very carefully and accurately.
10. Method of marking answers
In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the
answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”)
several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as
“Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to
each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST
BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2,
3…….etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d)
will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response.
If you think there is more than one correct response, then
choose what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if
you select more than one response, your response will be
considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed.
Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and
(d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and
decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best.
You have to mark your response by completely blackening
with black ball pen to indicate your response.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle
containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black
ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) • (c) (d)

11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List.
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with
black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable
Attendance List, as given below.
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the
Corresponding circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.
12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test
Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper
conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action
and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.
ANNEXURE
How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the
Examination Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that
since the answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation
of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which
29
you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses
on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check
that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he
should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top
line, which reads thus:
कɅद्र िवषय िवषय कोड अनक्रमा
ु ंक
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number
If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the
Mathematics Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test
booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen.
कɅद्र िवषय िवषय कोड अनक्रमा
ु ंक
Centre Delhi Subject Mathe- S.Code Roll Number
matics (A)
You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and
subject in English or Hindi
The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the
top right hand corner of the Booklet.
Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission
Certificate with Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose.
Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time
Table. Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll
Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with
Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.
Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after
receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the
same. For Mathematics *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you
have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:
पुिèतका क्रम (ए) िवषय 0 1
Booklet Series (A) Subject

0 1 0 8 1 2 7 6
A
B
C
D
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
30
अनक्रमा
ु ंक
Roll Number
All that is required is to
blacken
completely the circle
marked ‘A’ below
the Booklet Series and
below the subject code
blacken completely the
Circles for “0” (in the first
vertical column) and “1” (in
the second vertical
column). You should then
encode the Roll No.081276.
Do it thus similarly:
Important : Please
ensure that you have
carefully encoded your
subject. Test Booklet
series and Roll Number:
*This is just illustrative
and may not be relevant
to your Examination.
APPENDIX–IV
GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY.
NOTE : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY FIT
ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. MEDICAL
FITNESS CRITERIA GIVEN BELOW ARE AS PER EXISTING GUIDELINES AS
ON DATE OF PUBLICATION AND THESE GULIDELINES ARE SUBJECT TO
REVISION.
A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED
SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE
THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET
THEMSELVES MEDICALLY
EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS TO AVOID
DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE.
1. Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects/ailments in order to
speed up finalisation of medical examination conducted at the Military Hospital
after being recommended at the SSB.
0 8 1 2 7 6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
31
2. Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below:
(a) Wax (Ears)
(b) Deviated Nasal Septum
(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis
(d) Overweight/Underweight
(e) Under Sized Chest
(f) Piles
(g) Gynaecomastia
(h) Tonsillitis
(i) Varicocele
NOTE: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e.
from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal)
side of hand/Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not
acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo
marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be
permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre will be competent auth
for clearing such cases.
3. Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the Armed
Forces will be entitled to out-patients treatment from service sources at public
expense for injuries sustained or diseases contracted during the course of their
examination by the Selection Board. They will also be entitled to in-patient
treatment at public expense in the Officer’s ward of a hospital provided—
(a) the injury is sustained during the tests or,
(b) the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by
selection board and there is no suitable accommodation in local civil
hospital or it is impracticable to remove the patient to the civil hospital;
or,
(c) the medical board requires the candidate’s admission for
observation.
NOTE: They are not entitled to special nursing.
4. Medical Procedure
A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a
medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those
candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the Medical
Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and will not be
divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by
32
the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for an Appeal
Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate.
5. Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated
about the provision of Review Medical Board.
6. Medical Standards and procedure for Army, Navy and Air Force (Flying
Branch and Ground Duty Branch) are given in Annexure ‘A’. Annexure ‘B’ and
Annexure ‘C’ respectively, which is also available at following websites:-
(i) For Officers Entry into Army : Medical Standards and Procedure
of Medical Examination at www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
(ii) For Officers Entry for Air Force (flying & Ground duty branches)
: Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical Examination at
www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in
(iii) For Officers Entry for Navy : Medical Standards and Medical
Examination at www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
Note : The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential will not be
divulged to anyone. Directorate General of Recruiting has no role to play in any
Medical Boards and procedure advised by the Competent medical authorities will be
strictly adhered.
Annexure -A
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY
1. Introduction:
(a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial
integrity of the nation. For this purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared
for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous training in preparation for
war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need
arises like in the case of disasters. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires
candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such candidates should also be
capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of service conditions to perform
their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air, in
remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit
individual due to disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can
also jeopardize lives of other members of the team during operations. Therefore
only medically fit candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for war.
(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection
of ‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the Armed Forces.
(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit
assignment, age or gender should have a basic level of general ‘Medical fitness’
when inducted into service. This basic level of fitness can then be used as a
benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational
specialties or unit assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness.

33
(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces
Medical Services Medical Officers. These Medical Officers are well oriented to
specific working conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing basic military
training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers.
The decision of the Medical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any
disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed during enrolment/
commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State.
Medical Standards.
2. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines.
They are not exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are
subject to change with advancement in the scientific knowledge and change in working
conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be
promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical
Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based
on following guidelines and principles.
3. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and
mental health and free from any disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with
the efficient performance of military duties in any terrain, climate, season incl sea
and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also
should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical
facilities and use of any aid / drugs.
(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should
be no evidence of weak constitution, imperfect development of any system,
any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome or malformation.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on
the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of
the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant
disfigurement.
(f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.
(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from
fracture or depression of the bones of the skull; or scars indicating old
operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear
system.
(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or
cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal polyps or disease of the nasoPharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity
and no features of chronic tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any
disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint.
34
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl
congenital, genetic, organic incl hypertension, and conduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or
any other disease/syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest
including allergies/immunological conditions, connective tissue disorders,
musculoskeletal deformities of chest.
(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver,
pancreas incl endocrinal, congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases
/syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability of any endocrinal system,
reticuloendothelial system.
(r) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of genito-urinary system including
malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy of any organ or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or
enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system and joints incl
skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability.
4. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure.
However, any abnormal traits noticed during medical examination will be a cause for
rejection.
5. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to
rejection are:-
(a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g. scoliosis,
torticollis, kyphosis, deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other
bones of skeleton, mal-united fractures, deformed limbs, fingers, toes and
congenital deformities of spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers, deformed joints
like cubitus valgus, cubitus varus, knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile
joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened limbs.
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea,
lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of
pinna, tympanic membranes, middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and
congenital abnormalities of lips, palate, peri-auricular sinuses and
lymphadenitis/ adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for
Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions:-
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are known to be
progressive or recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower jaw which
may hamper efficient mastication and/or speech will be a cause for
rejection.
35
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A
mouth opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges,
Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction
of mouth opening.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus,
periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from gums.
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate
unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be
UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from the date of surgery/injury
whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication,
maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition or performance of
duties efficiently.
(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart,
musculo skeletal lesions of chest wall.
(g) Abdomen and genitor-urinary system: Hernia, un-descended testis,
varicocele, organomegaly, solitary kidney, horseshoe kidney & cysts in
the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric stones,
lesions/deformities of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses and
lymphadenitis/pathy.
(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance.
(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections
growths and hyperhydrosis.
6. Height and Weight: Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry.
Weight should be proportionate to height as per the chart given below:-
Age
(yrs)
Minimum
weight for
all ages
Age: 17 to 20
yrs
Age: 20+01
day – 30 yrs
Age: 30 +
01 day –
40 yrs
Age:
Above 40
yrs
Height
(cm)
Weight
(Kg)
Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight
(Kg)
Weight
(Kg)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
36
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
37
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3
(a) Weight for height charts given above is for all categories of personnel.
This chart is prepared based on the BMI. The chart specifies the minimum
acceptable weight that candidates of a particular height must have. Weights below
the minimum specified will not be acceptable in any case. The maximum
acceptable weight of height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights
higher than the acceptable limit will be acceptable only in the case of candidates
with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, and boxing at the
National level. In such cases the following criteria will have to be met.
(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.
(ii) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for females.
(iii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for males and 80 cm
for females.
(vi) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal
limits.
Note: The height and weight for candidates below 17 yrs will be followed as per
guidelines by ‘Indian Academy of Paediatrics growth charts for height, weight
and BMI for 05 yrs to 16 yrs old children’.
7. Following investigations will be carried out for all officer entries and for precommission training academies. However examining medical officer/ medical board may
ask for any other investigation deemed fit.
(a) Complete haemogram
(b) Urine RE
(c) Chest X-ray
(d) USG abdomen and Pelvis.
8. Certain standards vary depending on age and type entry viz stds for vision as
follows:-
Parameter Standards : 10+2
entries, NDA(Army),
TES and equivalent
Graduate &
equivalent entries:
CDSE, IMA,
OTA, UES,
NCC,TGC &
equivalent
Post graduate &
equivalent entries:
JAG, AEC , APS,
RVC,TA, AMC,
ADC, SL &
equivalent
Uncorrected
vision(max allowed)
6/36 & 6/36 6/60 &6/60 3/60 & 3/60
BCVA Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6
Myopia < -2.5 D Sph
( including max
astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0
D Cyl)
< -3.50 D Sph
( including max
astigmatism ≤ +/-
2.0 D Cyl)
< -5.50 D Sph
(including max
astigmatism ≤ +/-
2.0 D Cyl)
Hypermetropia <+2.5 D Sph,
( including max
<+3.50 DSph
( including max
<+3.50 D Sph
(including max
38
astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0
D Cyl)
astigmatism ≤ +/-
2.0 D Cyl)
astigmatism ≤ +/-
2.0 D Cyl)
Lasik/equivalent
surgery
Not permitted Permitted * Permitted*
Colour perception CP-II CP-II CP-II
*LASIK or Equivalent kerato-refractive procedure
(a) Any candidate who has undergone any kerato-refractive procedure will
have a certificate/operative notes from the medical centre where he/she has
undergone the procedure, specifying the date and type of surgery.
Note: Absence of such a certificate will necessitate the Ophthalmologist to make
a decision to reject the candidate with specific endorsement of “Unfit due to
undocumented Visual Acuity corrective procedure”.
(b) In order to be made FIT, the following criteria will have to be met:
(i) Age more than 20 yrs at the time of surgery
(ii) Minimum 12 months post LASIK
(iii) Central corneal thickness equal to or more than 450 µ
(iv) Axial length by IOL Master equal to or less than 26 mm
(v) Residual refraction of less than or equal to +/- 1.0 D incl cylinder,
(provided acceptable in the category applied for).
(vi) Normal healthy retina.
(vii) Corneal topography and ectasia markers can also be included as addl
criteria.
Candidates who have undergone radial keratotomy are permanently unfit
9. Form to be used for med board proceedings is AFMSF-2A.
10. Procedure of Medical Examination Board: Medical Examination Board for
selection for officers and pre-commissioning training academies are convened at
designated Armed Forces Medical Services Hospitals near Service Selection Boards
(SSB). These Medical Boards are termed as ‘Special Medical Board’ (SMB). Candidates
who clear SSB interview are referred to Armed Forces Medical Services Hospital with
identification documents. Staff Surgeon of Hospital will identify the candidate, guide the
candidate to fill the relevant portions of the AFMSF-2, organize investigations and
examination by Medical, Surgical, Eye, ENT, Dental specialists. Female candidates are
examined by Gynaecology Specialist also. After examination by Specialists, the
candidate is brought before Medical Board. Medical Board once satisfied with findings
of Specialists will declare fitness of candidate. If any candidate is declared ‘Unfit’ by
SMB, such candidates can request for ‘Appeal Medical Board’ (AMB). Detailed
procedure for AMB will be provided by President SMB.
11. Miscellaneous aspects:
(a) Clinical methods of examinations are laid down by O/O DGAFMS.
39
(b) Female candidates will be examined by female medical officers and
specialists. In case of non availability they will be examined by Medical
Officer in the presence of female attendant.
(c) Fitness following surgery: Candidates may be declared fit after surgery.
However, there should not be any complication; scar should be healthy,
well healed and attained required tensile strength. The candidate shall be
considered fit after 01 year of open/laproscopic surgeries for hernia and
twelve weeks of laparoscopic abdominal surgery for cholesystectomy. For
any other surgery, fitness shall be considered only after 12 weeks of the
laparoscopic surgery and 12 months after an open surgery. Candidate shall
be unfit for any surgeries for injuries, ligament tear, and meniscus tear of
any joint, irrespective of duration of surgery.
Annexure B
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO NAVY
PROCEDURE ON CONDUCT OF MEDICAL BOARDS
1. A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board (SSB) will undergo a
medical examination (Special Medical Board) by a Board of Service Medical Officers.
Only those candidates,who are declared fit by the Medical Board, will be admitted to the
Academy. However, the President of the Medical Board will intimate the candidates
declared unfit of their resultsand the procedure for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB)to be
completed in a Command Hospital or equivalent within 42 days of Special Medical
Board.
2. Candidates who are declared unfit by the Appeal Medical Board (AMB) may
request for Review Medical board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal
Medical Board. The President AMB will intimate about the procedure of challenging the
findings of AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that sanction for holding of
Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on
the merit of the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate should address
the request for RMB if he/ she so desires to DMPR, Integrated Headquarters Ministry of
Defence (Navy), SenaBhawan, Rajaji Marg, New Delhi – 110011 and a copy of the same
is handed over to the President of AMB. O/o DGAFMS will inform the date and place
(Delhi and Pune only) where the candidate will appear for a RMB.
3. The following investigations will be carried out mandatorily during Special
Medical Board. However, Medical Officer / Medical Board examining a candidate may
ask for any other investigation as required or indicated :-
(a) Complete Haemogram
(b) Urine RE/ME
(c) X Ray chest PA view
(d) USG abdomen & pelvis

40
PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR OFFICERS (MALE/FEMALE) ON
ENTRY
4. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical
standards.
(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from
any disease/ disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance
of dutiesboth ashore and afloat, under peace as well as war conditions in any part
of the world.

(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or
underweight. The candidate should not be overweight or obese.
5. Weight
Height-Weight Chart : Navy
Height
in Mtrs Up to 17 yrs 17 yrs + 1 day
to 18 yrs
18 yrs + 1 day
to 20 yrs
20 yrs + 1 day
to 30 yrs Above 30 yrs

Minimum
Weight in
Kg
Maximum
Weight in
Kg
Minimum
Weig
ht in
Kg
Maximum
Weight
in Kg
Minimum
Weig
ht in
Kg
Maximum
Weig
ht in
Kg
Minimum
Weight
in Kg
Maximum
Weight
in Kg
Minimum
Weig
ht in
Kg
Maxi
mum
Weig
ht in
Kg
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
41
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91
Notes:-
(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for all
categories of personnel. Candidates with weight below the minimum specified
will not be accepted.
(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only
in exceptional circumstances in case of candidates with documented evidence of
body building, wrestling, boxing or muscular build. In such cases, the following
criteria are to be met :-

(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.
(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.9.
(iii) All biochemical parameters such as blood sugar Fasting and PP,
blood urea, creatinine, cholesterol, HbA1C%, etc are within normal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
42
(d) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms. However, relaxation in height
is permissible to candidates holding domicile of areas as mentioned below:
Srl No. Category Minimum Height for Male
Candidates
(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 155 Cm
(ii) Aandaman & Nicobar, Lakshdweep and
Minicoy Islands
155 Cm
(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali,
Kumaoni and Uttarakhand
152 Cm
(iv) Bhutan, Sikkim & North East Region 152 Cm
6. During the medical examination of candidates, the following principal points will
be ensured:-
(a) The candidate is sufficiently intelligent.
(b) The hearing is good and that there is no sign of any disease of ear, nose or
throat.

(c) Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her eyes are bright,
clear and with no obvious squint or abnormality. Movements of eye balls should
be full and free in all directions.
(d) Speech is without impediment.
(e) There is no glandular swelling.
(f) Chest is well formed and that his/her heart and lungs are sound.
(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed and fully developed.
(h) There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.
(j) There is free and perfect action of all the joints.
(k) Feet and toes are well formed.
(l) Absence of any congenital malformation or defects.
(m) He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing
to an impaired constitution.

(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication.
(p) Absence of any disease of the Genito-Urinary tract.
7. Major defects for rejection are as under:-
(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital malformation,
muscular wasting.
43
(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture or depression
of the bones of the skull.
(c) Disease or abnormal curvature of the spine, Scoliosis more than 10 degree
by Cobb’s method till less than 25 years of age and 15 degree in more than 25
years of age.
Note:-X-Ray of the spine will not be carried out as a routine. It will however be
done on the advice of the Surgical Specialist wherever indicated.
(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired and disease or impairment
of function of bones or joints.
Note:- Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.
(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion including
amputation.

(f) Deformity of feet and toes.
8. Eye.
(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the eye or eyelids that is liable for
aggravation or recurrence.
(b) Manifest squint of any degree.

(c) Active trachoma or its complication or sequelae.

(d) Visual acuity below prescribed standards.
Notes:-
1. Visual standards for NDA/ NA entry are as follows :-
Criteria NDA/ NA
Uncorrected Vision 6/66/9
Corrected Vision 6/6 6/6
Limits of Myopia – 0.75 D Sph
Limits of Hypermetropia + 1.5 D Cyl
Astigmatism (within limits of myopia and
hypermetropia)
+ 0.75 D Sph / Cyl
Binocular Vision III
Colour Perception I
2. Kerato Refractive Surgery. Candidates who have undergone any
Refractory Surgery (PRK/LASIK/SMILE) can be considered fit in all branches
(except submarine, diving and MARCO cadre) subject to the following
conditions :-
(a) Surgery should not have been carried out before 20 yrs of age.
(b) Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before examination
(Certificate mentioning the type of refractive surgery, date of surgery
44
and pre-operative refractive error from concerned eye centre is to be
produced by the candidate at the time of recruitment medical
examination).
(c) Axial length less than or equal to 26 mm by IOL Master or A
Scan.
(d) Residual corneal thickness measured by Pachymeter should not be
less than 450 microns.
(e) Residual refraction less than or equal to +1.0 D Sph or Cyl,
provided within the permissible limit for the category applied for.
However, for Pilot and Observer entries, the residual refraction should be
nil.
(f) Pre-operative refractive error not more than +/- 6.0 D
(g) Normal retinal examination.
3. Kerato-Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not acceptable for
special cadres such as submarine, diving and MARCO.Candidates who have
undergone Radial Keratotomy are permanently unfit for recruitment.
9. Ear, Nose and Throat.
(a) Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of
hearing, disease of the external meatus including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm
which prevent a thorough examination of the drum, unhealed perforation of the
tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative otitis
media, evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid operation.
Notes:-
1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a distance of
610 cms with each ear separately with back to the examiner.
2. The operation of tympanoplasty with or without cortical
mastoidectomy for a dry central perforation of tympanic membrane is
considered curative once the graft has taken up provided tympanic
membrane is intact, mobile with free field hearing of 610 cms in each ear
separately and a normal hearing threshold on pure tone audiometry. A gap
of three months is considered adequate after operation of complete healing
and graft stabilization. For fitness, the candidate should also show a
normal compliance on Tympanometry.
(b) Nose. Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy,
nasal polyps, atrophic rhinitis, disease of the accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.
Note:- Simple nasal deformity not causing disfigurement, minor septal deviation
not interfering with nasal airway and small traumatic septal perforation which are
asymptomatic are acceptable.
45
(c) Throat. Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or
injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joints.
(d) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech. Voice should be
normal. Candidates with pronounced stammer will not be accepted.
10. Dental Condition. It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and
sound teeth are present for efficient mastication.
(a) A candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in
order to assess the dental condition of an individual. Dental points less than 14
are a cause of rejection. The dental points are allotted as under for teeth in good
opposition with corresponding teeth in the other jaw:-

(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1st Premolar, 2nd Premolar
and under development third molar with 1 point each.

(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3rd molar with 2 points
each.

(iii) When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total count of 22 or
20 pints according to whether the third molars are well developed or not.
(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each
jaw:-
(i) Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.

(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.

All these teeth must be sound/ repairable.

(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected. Where the
state of pyorrhea is such that in the opinion of the Dental Officer, it can be cured
without extraction of teeth, the candidates may be accepted. A note about the
affected teeth is to be inserted by the Medical/ Dental Officer in the medical
documents.
(d) Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the dental points.
11. Neck.
(a) Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the neck or other
parts of the body.
Note:- Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause
for rejection provided there has been no active disease within the preceding five
years and the chest is clinically and radiologically clear.
(b) Disease of the thyroid gland.
12. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI).
(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
46
(b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to cause
disability/ or marked disfigurement.
(c) Hyperhydrosis – Palmar, plantar or axillary.
(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.
Note:- In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/ vagina suggestive of
past STI, blood will be tested for STI (Including HIV) to exclude latent Sexually
Transmitted Disease.
13. Respiratory System.
(a) History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.
(b) Evidence of pulmonary Tuberculosis.
(c) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological
examination of the chest will disqualify the candidate.
Note:- An X-Ray examination of the chest will be carried out.
14. Cardio-Vascular System.

(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels, presence of
murmurs or clicks on auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest), bradycardia
(Pulse Rate persistently below 40/ min at rest), any abnormality of peripheral
pulse.
(c) Blood pressure exceeding 140mm Hg systolic or 90mm Hg diastolic.
15. Abdomen.
(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro-intestinal tract, enlargement of liver,
gall bladder or spleen, tenderness on abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of
peptic ulcer or previous history of extensive abdominal surgery. All officer entry
candidates are to be subjected to the Ultra Sound Examination of the abdominal
and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities of the internal organs.
(b) Inguinal or any other hernia or tendency thereto.
Note:- Those who have been operated for hernia/ hydrocele, varicose veins,
varicocele may be declared fit provided:-

(i) Six months have elapsed since the operation for hernia and six
weeks for other minor operations. Documentary proof to this effect is to
be produced by the candidate.
(ii) General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.
47
(iii) There has been no recurrence of hernia or any complication
connected with the operation.
(d) Fistula-in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Hemorrhoids unless satisfactory
treatment has been carried out.
16. Genito-Urinary System.
(a) Any evidence of disease of genital organs.
(b) Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis retained in the
inguinal canal or at the external abdominal ring unless corrected by operation.
Note:- Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been
removed on account of disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental
health of the candidate.
(c) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.
(d) Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.
(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine including albuminuria or
glycosuria.
17. Central Nervous System.
(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System.
(b) Tremors.
(c) Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of headache/ migraine
will not be accepted.
18. Psychiatric Disorders. History or evidence of mental disease or nervous
instability in the candidate or his family.
*****

48
Annexure C
MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR NDA (FLYING &GROUND DUTY
BRANCHES)
General Instructions
1. In this section the assessment of candidates for commissioning through NDA into
flying and ground duty branches in the IAF is considered.
2. The basic requirements of medical fitness are essentially the same for all
branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity, anthropometry
and certain other physical standards are more stringent. A candidate will not be assessed
physically fit unless the examination as a whole shows that he is physically and mentally
capable of withstanding severe physical and mental strain for prolonged periods in any
climate in any part of the world.
3. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards.
Continuation of medical fitness during training will be assessed during the periodic
medical examinations held at NDA prior to commissioning. If, however, any disease or
disability is detected during the training phase, which will have a bearing on the flight
cadets subsequent physical fitness and medical category; such cases will be referred
expeditiously to IAM (for aircrew)/ specialists of MH (for non-aircrew) under intimation
to the office of DGMS (Air)-Med-7. At IAM, if the disease or disability is considered of
a permanent nature, an early decision for the cadet to continue in the service/ branch/
stream is to be taken. Specific waivers of DGMS (Air), if asked for, must carry full
justification in accordance with relevant Para of IAP 4303 4th edition (revised).
General Medical and Surgical Assessment
4. Every candidate to be fit for the Air Force must conform to the minimum
standards laid down in the succeeding paragraphs. The general build should be well
developed and proportionate.
5. The residual effects of fractures/ old injuries are to be assessed for any functional
limitation. If there is no effect on function, the candidate can be assessed fit. Cases of
old fractures of spine are unfit. Any residual deformity of spine or compression of a
vertebra will be cause for rejection. Injuries involving the trunks of the larger nerves,
resulting in loss of function, or scarring, which cause pain or cramps, indicate
unsuitability for employment in flying duties. The presence of large or multiple keloids
will be a cause for rejection.
6. Minor scars and Birth Marks for e.g. as resulting from the removal of tuberculous
glands do not, per se, indicate unsuitability for employment on flying duties. Extensive
scarring of a limb or torso that may cause functional limitation or unsightly appearance
should be considered unfit.
7. Cervical rib without any neurovascular compromise will be accepted. This will be
recorded in the medical board proceedings.
8. Asymmetry of the face and head, which will interfere with proper fitting of
oxygen mask and helmet, will be a cause for rejection for flying duties.
49
9. A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation, other than a simple
appendicectomy, involving extensive surgical intervention or partial or total excision of
any organ isunsuitable for flying duties. Operation involving the cranial vault (e.g.
trephining), or extensive thoracic operations make the candidate unfit for flying.
10. The chest should be well proportioned and well developed with the minimum
range of expansion of 5cm.
11. Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length
(a) The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches will be 157.5
cm.Gorkhas and individuals belonging to North Eastern regions of India
and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable height will be 5
cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum
acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm (155.5 cm).
(b) Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable
measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height for such aircrew
will be as under: –
(i) Sitting height: Minimum- 81.5 cm Maximum- 96.0 cm
(ii) Leg Length: Minimum- 99.0 cm Maximum- 120.0 cm
(iii) Thigh Length: Maximum- 64.0 cm
12. The weight chart prescribed is placed at Appendix A to the draft rules will be
applicable. The maximum permissible variation from the ideal body weight is 10%.
Fraction of less than half a kg will not be noted. If a candidate is underweight by more
than 10% below the ideal, a detailed history and careful examination to rule out possible
cause like tuberculosis, hyperthyroidism, diabetes etc. will be carried out. If no cause is
detected the candidate will be declared fit. If any cause is detected the fitness of the
candidate will be decided accordingly.
13. Cardiovascular System
(a) History of chest pain, breathlessness, palpitation, fainting attacks, giddiness,
rheumatic fever, chorea, frequent sore throats and tonsillitis will be given
due consideration in assessment of the cardiovascular system.
(b) The normal pulse rate varies from 60-100 bpm. Persistent sinus tachycardia
(> 100 bpm), after emotional factors and fever are excluded as causes, as
well as persistent sinus bradycardia (< 60 bpm), will be referred for
specialist opinion to exclude organic causes. Sinus arrhythmia and
vagotoniawill also be excluded.
(c) Candidates are quite prone to develop White Coat Hypertension, which is a
transient rise of BP, due to the stress of medical examination. Every effort
must be made to eliminate the White Coat effect by repeated recordings
under basal conditions. When indicated, ambulatory BP recording must be
carried out or the candidate be admitted to hospital for observation before
final fitness is certified. An individual with BP consistently greater than or
equal to 140/90 mm of Hg will be rejected.
50
(d) Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause for rejection.
Diastolic murmurs are invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of
ejection systolic nature and not associated with thrill and which diminish on
standing, especially if associated with a normal ECG and chest radiograph,
are most often functional. However, an echocardiogram will be done to
exclude organic heart disease. In case of any doubt the case will be referred
to cardiologist for opinion.
(e) Electrocardiogram. Assessment of a properly recorded ECG (resting – 14
lead) will be carried out by a medical specialist. Note will be taken of wave
patterns, the amplitude, duration and time relationship. At initial entry no
abnormalities are acceptable except incomplete RBBB in the absence of
structural heart disease, which must be excluded. In such cases, opinion of
Senior Adviser (Medicine) or Cardiologist will be obtained.
14. Respiratory System
(a) Any residual scarring in pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as evidenced by
a demonstrable opacity on chest radiogram will be a ground for rejection.
Old treated cases of Pulmonary Tuberculosis with no significant residual
abnormality can be accepted if the diagnosis and treatment was completed
more than two year earlier. In these cases, a CT scan chest and fibreoptic
bronchoscopy with bronchial lavage will be done alongwith USG, ESR,
PCR, Immunological tests and Mantoux test as decided by the Physician. If
all the tests are normal the candidate may be considered fit. However, in
such cases fitness will only be decided at Appeal/ Review Medical Board.
(b) Pleurisy with Effusion. Any evidence of significant residual pleural
thickening will be a cause for rejection.
(c) History of repeated attacks of cough/ wheezing/ bronchitis may be
manifestations of chronic bronchitis or other chronic pathology of the
respiratory tract. Such cases will be assessed unfit. Pulmonary Function
Tests will be carried out, if available.
(d) History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/ wheezing/ allergic rhinitis
will be a cause for rejection.
(e) Radiographs of the Chest. Definite radiological evidence of disease of the
lungs, mediastinum and pleurae indicates unsuitability for employment in
Air Force. If required, investigations as outlined in Para 13 (a) above will be
carried out under the advice of a Chest Physician.
15. Gastrointestinal System
(a) Any past history of ulceration or infection of the mouth, tongue, gums or
throat will be taken note of including any major dental alteration.
(b) The following dental standards will be followed:-
(i) Candidate must have 14 dental points and the following teeth must be
present in the upper jaw in good functional opposition with the
corresponding teeth in the lower jaw, and these must be sound or
repairable:-
51
(aa) Any four of the six anteriors
(ab) Any six of the ten posteriors
(ac) They should be balancing on both sides. Unilateral mastication
is not allowed.
(ad) Any removable or wired prosthesis are not permitted.
(ii) Candidate whose dental standard does not conform to the laid down
standard will be rejected.
(iii) Candidate with dental arches affected by advanced stage of
generalised active lesions of pyorrhoea, acute ulcerative gingivitis,
and gross abnormality of the teeth or jaws or with numerous caries or
septic teeth will be rejected.
(c) Gastro-Duodenal Disabilities. Candidates who are suffering or have
suffered, during the previous two years, from symptoms suggestive of
chronic indigestion, including proven peptic ulceration, are not to be
accepted, in view of the exceedingly high risk of recurrence of symptoms
and potential for incapacitation. Any past surgical procedure involving
partial or total loss of an organ (other than vestigial organs/gall bladder)
will entail rejection.
(d) If past history of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the liver function
is suspected, full investigation is required for assessment. Candidates
suffering from viral hepatitis or any other form of jaundice will be rejected.
Such candidates can be declared fit after a minimum period of 6 months has
elapsed provided there is full clinical recovery; HBV and HCV status are
both negative and liver functions are within normal limits.
(e) Candidates who have undergone splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the
cause for operation. Splenomegaly of any degree is a cause for rejection.
(f) A candidate with a well-healed hernia scar, after successful surgery, will be
considered fit six months after surgery, provided there is no potential for
any recurrence and the abdominal wall musculature is good.
(g) Abdominal Surgery
(i) A candidate with well-healed scar after conventional abdominal
surgery will be considered fit after one year of successful surgery
provided there is no potential for any recurrence of the underlying
pathology and the abdominal wall musculature is good.
(ii) A candidate after laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be considered fit
if 08 weeks have passed since surgery provided they are free from
signs and symptoms and their evaluation including LFT and USG
abdomen are normal and there is total absence of gall bladder with no
intra-abdominal collection. Other abdominal laproscopic procedures
can also be considered fit after 08 weeks of surgery provided the
52
individual is asymptomatic, recovery is complete and there is no
residual complication or evidence of recurrence.
(h) Disposal of cases with incidental ultrasonographic (USG) findings like fatty
liver, small cysts, haemangiomas, septate gall bladder etc., will be based on
clinical significance and functional limitation. A methodically conducted
USG examination should look for the following areas during the
examination. The findings as listed in the succeeding paragraphs and other
incidental USG findings reported will be evaluated on clinical significance
and functional capacity by the concerned specialist.
(j) Liver
(i) Fit
(aa) Normal echoanatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and
hepatic veins with liver span not exceeding 15 cm in the midclavicular line.
(ab) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm
diameter.
(ii) Unfit
(aa) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid-clavicular line.
(ab) Fatty liver
(ac) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm
(ad) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations and debris
(ae) Any calcifications more than 03 mm in size.
(af) More than three calcifications even if each is less than 03 mm
in size.
(ag) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.
(ah) Hemangioma> 02cm.
(aj) Portal vein thrombosis.
(ak) Evidence of portal hypertension (PV >13 mm, collaterals,
ascites).
(iii) During Appeal Medical Board/Review Medical Board unfit
candidates will be subjected to specific investigations and detailed
clinical examination. Fitness for specific conditions will be decided
as given below:-
(aa) Fatty Liver may be considered fit in non-obese individual with
normal LFT, no metabolic abnormality and negative HBsAg and
Anti-HCV serology.
53
(ab) Solitary simple cyst 2.5 – 05 cm will be further evaluated with LFT,
CECT abdomen, and hydatid serology. Will be considered fit if LFT
is normal, hydatid serology is negative and CECT confirms USG
findings.
(ac) Any liver calcifications, irrespective of size and number be
considered fit provided after due investigations it is revealed that
there is no evidence of active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis,
hydatid disease, metastatic tumour or liver abscess based onrelevant
clinical examination and investigations (LFT, hydatid serology,
etc.).
(k) Gall Bladder
(i) Fit
(aa) Normal echoanatomy of the gall bladder.
(ab) Post laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. Candiates having
undergone lap-cholecystectomy may be considered fit if 08 weeks
have passed since surgery and there is total absence of gall bladder
with no intra- abdominal collection. Wound should have healed
well without incisional hernia.
(ac) Open Cholecystectomy. Candidates having undergone
open Cholecystectomy may be considered fit if one year has
passed since surgery, the scar is healthy with no incisional hernia
and there is total absence of gall bladder with no intra- abdominal
collection.
(ii) Unfit.
(aa) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.
(ab) Choledocolithiasis.
(ac) Polyp of any size and number.
(ad) Choledochal cyst.
(ae) Gall bladder mass.
(af) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(ag) Septate gall bladder.
(ah) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(aj) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.
(l) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if clinically palpable), any
Space Occupying Lesion and Asplenia will be considered Unfit.
54
(m) Any structural abnormality of the Pancreas, Space Occupying Lesion/Mass
Lesion, Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification,ductular abnormality,
atrophy) will be considered Unfit.
(n) Peritoneal Cavity. Ascites, Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph
node >1 cm and Two or more lymph nodes of any size will be considered
Unfit.
(o) Urogenital System.
(i) A simple non obstructive renal cyst of less than 2.5 cm size in one
kidney will be considered fit.
(ii) The following congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys will be
declared unfit.
(aa) Unilateral renal agenesis.
(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/contracted kidney of size less
than 08 cm.
(ac) Malrotation.
(ad) Horseshoe kidney.
(ae) Ptosed kidney.
(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.
(iii) Simple single renal cyst of more than 2.5 cm size in one kidney.
(iv) Single cyst of any size in both kidneys or multiple cysts in one
kidney.
(v) Renal/ ureteric/vesical mass.
(vi) Hydronephrosis, Hydroureteronephrosis.
(vii) Calculi – Renal/Ureteric/Vesical.
(viii) During Appeal Medical Board/Review Medical Board, unfit
candidates will be subjected to specific investigations and detailed
clinical examination. Fitness for specific conditions will be decided as
given below:-
(aa) Candidates having isolated abnormality of echo texture of
Kidney may be considered fit if Renal Function, DTPA scan
and CECT kidney is normal.
(p) Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC). Any structural abnormality,
focal ectasia, aneurysm and calcification will be considered Unfit.
(q) Scrotum and Testis
55
(i) Unlilateralintrabdominal testes, provided the other testes is
completely descended will be declared fit.
(ii) Bilateral undescended testes or bilateral atrophied testis will be
declared unfit.
(iii) Unilateral undescended testis if it lies in the inguinal canal, at the
external ring or in the abdominal wall will be declared unfit.
(iv) Varicocele will be unfit.
16. Urogenital System
(a) Any alteration in micturition, e.g. dysuria or frequency will be noted.
Recurrent attacks of cystitis; pyelonephritis and haematuria must be
excluded. Any history of renal colic, attacks of acute nephritis, any
operation on the renal tract including loss of a kidney, passing of stones or
urethral discharges will be enquired in detail. If there is any history of
enuresis, past or present, full details must be obtained.
(b) Urine Examination
(i) Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless it proves to be
orthostatic.
(ii) When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar examination (fasting and
after 75 g glucose) and glycosylated Hb is to be carried out, and
fitness decided as per results. Renal glycosuria is not a cause for
rejection.
(iii) When the candidate has history or evidence of urinary infection it will
entail full renal investigation. Persistent evidence of urinary infection
will entail rejection.
(iv) Candidates with history of haematuria will be subjected to full renal
investigation.
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(i) There is a high rate of recovery in the acute phase, particularly in
childhood. A candidate who has made a complete recovery and has
no proteinuria may be assessed fit, after a minimum period of one
year after full recovery.
(ii) Candidate with chronic glomerulonephritis will be rejected.
(d) Renal Colic and Renal Calculi.Complete renal and metabolic evaluation is
required. Candidates with renal calculi will be rejected.
(e) All candidates found to have congenital absence of one kidney or who have
undergone unilateral nephrectomy will be rejected. Presence of horseshoe
kidney will entail rejection. Solitary functioning kidney with diseased, nonfunctional contralateral kidney will entail rejection. Crossed ectopia,
unascended or malrotated kidney(s), unilateral congenital hypoplasia will be
a cause for rejection.
56
(f) Bilateral undescended testis /atrophied testis will be a cause for rejection.
Unilateral undescended testis, if entirely retained in the abdomen, is
acceptable. If it lies in the inguinal canal, at the external ring or in the
abdominal wall, such cases may be accepted after either orchidectomy or
orchipexy operation. In all doubtful cases, surgical opinion must be
obtained regarding fitness.
(g) Hydrocele or Varicocele should be properly treated before fitness is
considered. Minor degree of varicocele will not entail rejection.
(h) Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV).
Seropositive HIV status and/ or evidence of STD will entail rejection.
17. Endocrine System
(a) Generally any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause for
rejection.
(b) All cases of thyroid swelling having abnormal iodine uptake and abnormal
thyroid hormone levels will be rejected. Cases of simple goitre with
minimal thyroid swelling, who are clinically euthyroid and have normal
iodine uptake and normal thyroid functions may be accepted.
(c) Candidates detected to have diabetes mellitus will be rejected. A candidate
with a family history of diabetes mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar
(fasting and after glucose load) and Glycosylated Hb/ HbA1c evaluation,
which will be recorded.
18. Dermatological System
(a) Borderline skin conditions will be referred to a dermatologist. Candidates
who give history of sexual exposure to a Commercial Sex Worker (CSW),
or have evidence of healed penile sore in the form of a scar will be declared
permanently unfit, even in absence of an overt STD, as these candidates are
likely ‘repeaters’ with similar indulgent promiscuous behavior.
(b) Acute non-exanthematous and non-communicable diseases, which
ordinarily run a temporary course, need not be a cause of rejection. Diseases
of a trivial nature, and those, which do not interfere with general health or
cause incapacity, do not entail rejection.
(c) Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under
tropical conditions. An individual is unsuitable for service if he has a
definite history or signs of chronic or recurrent skin disease. Some such
conditions are described below:-
(i) Some amount of Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis is physiological,
considering the situation that recruits face during medical
examination. However, candidates with significant Palmoplantar
Hyperhydrosis will be considered unfit.
(ii) Mild (Grade I) Acne Vulgaris consisting of few comedones or
papules, localized only to the face may be acceptable. However,
57
moderate to severe degree of acne (nodulocystic type with or without
keloidal scarring) or involving the back will be considered unfit.
(iii) Any degree of Palmoplantar Keratoderma manifesting with
hyperkeratotic and fissured skin over the palms, soles and heels will
be considered unfit.
(iv) Ichthyosis Vulgaris involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident
dry, scaly, fissured skin will be considered unfit. Mild xerosis (dry
skin) may be considered fit.
(v) Candidates having any keloidswill be considered unfit.
(vi) Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe-nails should be
declared unfit, especially if associated with nail dystrophy. Mild
degree of distal discolouration involving single nail without any
dystrophy may be acceptable.
(vii) Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm will be
considered unfit, as there is a malignant potential in such large sized
naevi.
(viii) Small sized callosities, corns and warts may be considered acceptable
after treatment. However candidates with multiple common warts or
diffuse palmoplantar mosaic warts, large callosities on pressure areas
of palms and soles and multiple corns will be rejected.
(ix) Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse and/or recur
and hence will be considered unfit.
(x) Candidates suffering from minor degree of Leukoderma affecting the
covered parts may be accepted. Vitiligo limited only to glans and
prepuce may be considered fit. Those having extensive degree of skin
involvement and especially, when the exposed parts are affected, even
to a minor degree, will not be accepted.
(d) A history of chronic or recurrent attacks of skin infections will be cause for
rejection. A simple attack of boils or sycosis from which there has been
complete recovery may be considered for acceptance.
(e) Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring attacks of a skin
disease of a serious or incapacitating nature e.g. eczema will be assessed as
permanently unfit and rejected.
(f) Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection.
(g) Naevusdepigmentosus and Beckersnaevus may be considered fit.
Intradermal naevus, vascular naevi may be considered unfit.
(h) Mild Pityriasis Versicolor may be considered fit after treatment. Extensive
Pityriasis Versicolor may be considered unfit.
(j) Tinea Cruris and Tinea Corporis may be considered fit on recovery.
58
(k) Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.
(l) Canities (premature graying stain) may be considered fit if mild in nature
and no systemic association is seen.
(m) Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.
(n) Sexually Transmitted Diseases including Genital Ulcers will be considered
unfit.
(o) Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.
19. Musculoskeletal System and Physical Capacity
(a) Assessment of the candidate‘s physique is to be based upon careful
observation of such general parameters as apparent muscular development,
age, height, weight and the correlation of this i.e. potential ability to acquire
physical stamina with training. The candidate‘s physical capacity is affected
by general physical development or by any constitutional or pathological
condition.
(b) Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac joints,
either with or without objective signs, which has prevented the candidate
from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection
for commissioning. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral disc
and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection.
(c) Mild kyphosis or lordosis where deformity is barely noticeable and not
associated with pain or restriction of movement may be accepted. When
scoliosis is noticeable or any pathological condition of the spine is
suspected, radiographic examination of the appropriate part of the spine
needs to be carried out.
(d) For flying duties, radiograph (AP and lateral views) of cervical, thoracic
and lumbosacral spine is to be carried out. For ground duties, radiographic
examination of spine may be carried out, if deemed necessary.
(e) The following conditions detected radiologically will disqualify a candidate
for Air Force Service:-
(i) Granulomatous disease of spine
(ii) Arthritis/Spondylosis
(aa) Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders.
(ab) Ankylosing Spondylitis.
(ac) Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint disease.
(ad) Non-articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis
elbow, recurrent lumbago etc.).
(ae) Misc disorders including SLE, Polymyositis, and Vasculitis.
59
(af) Spondylolisthesis/ Spondylolysis.
(ag) Compression fracture of vertebra.
(ah) Scheuerman‘s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis).
(aj) Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically
restricted movements of cervical spine.
(ak) Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological
or circulatory deficit.
(iii) Any other abnormality as so considered by the specialist.
(f) The deformities/diseases contained in the above para will be cause for
rejection for all branches in IAF. In addition for candidates for flying
branches, the under mentioned rules will also apply:-
(i) Spinal Anomalies acceptable for Flying Duties.
(aa) Bilateral complete sacralisation of LV5 and bilateral complete
lumbarisation of SV1.
(ab) Spina bifida in sacrum and in LV5, if completely sacralised.
(ac) Complete block (fused) vertebrae in cervical and/or dorsal spine
at a single level.
(ii) Spinal Conditions not acceptable for Flying Duties.
(aa) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb‘s method.
(ab) Degenerative Disc Disease.
(ac) Atlanto – occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies
(ad) Hemi vertebra and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebra at any
level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block
(fused)vertebra at more than one level in cervical or dorsal
spine.
(ae) Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or
incomplete) at all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or
lumbarisation.
(g) Conditions Affecting the Assessment of Upper Limbs
(i) Candidate with an amputation of a limb will not be accepted for entry.
Amputation of terminal phalanx of little finger on both sides is,
however, acceptable.
60
(ii) Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts will be cause for
rejection. Syndactyly and polydactyly will be assessed as unfit except
when polydactyly is excised.
(iii) Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be graded according
to the degree of stiffness. Loss of dorsiflexion is more serious than
loss of palmar flexion.
(iv) Slight limitation of movement of the elbow does not bar acceptance
provided functional capacity is adequate. Ankylosis will entail
rejection. Cubitus Valgus is said to be present when the carrying angle
(angle between arm and forearm in anatomical posture) is
exaggerated. In absence of functional disability and obvious cause
like a fracture mal-union, fibrosis or the like, a carrying angle of upto
15º will be acceptable.
(v) History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder will entail rejection.
(vi) Malunion/non-union of an old fracture clavicle will entail rejection.
(h) Conditions affecting the Assessment of Lower Limbs
(i) Mild cases of Hallux Valgus (less than 20 degrees), asymptomatic,
without any associated corn/callosities/bunionare acceptable. Other
cases will entail rejection. Shortening of first metatarsal is also
considered unfit.
(ii) Hallux Rigidusis not acceptable.
(iii) Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be
accepted. Fixed (rigid) deformity or hammer toe associated with
corns, callosities, mallet toes or hyperextension at
metatarsophalangeal joint (claw toe deformity) will be rejected.
(iv) Loss of any digit of the toes entails rejection.
(v) Extra digits will entail rejection if there is bony continuity with
adjacent digits. Cases of syndactyly or loss of toes/fingers will be
rejected.
(vi) Feet may look apparent flat. If the arches of the feet reappear on
standing on toes, if the candidate can skip and run well on the toes
and if the feet are supple, mobile and painless, the candidate is
acceptable. Restriction of the movements of the foot will also be a
cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot, whatever may be the shape of
the foot, is a cause for rejection.
(vii) Mild degree of idiopathic pes cavus is acceptable. Moderate and
severe pes cavus and pes cavus due to organic disease will entail
rejection. All cases of Talipes (Club Foot) will be rejected.
(viii) Any significant limitation of movement of the ankle joints following
previous injuries will not be accepted. However, cases with no
history of recurrent trouble and having plantar and dorsiflexion
61
movement of at least 20 degree may be assessed fit for ground duties.
Fitness for aircrew duties will be based on functional evaluation.
(ix) History or clinical signs suggestive of internal derangement of knee
joint will need careful consideration. Fitness in such cases will be
based on functional evaluation and possibility/progression/recurrence
of the treated pathology.
(x) If the distance between the internal malleoli is less than 5 cm, without
any other deformity, the candidate will be considered fit for Genu
Valgum (Knock Knee). If the distance between the two internal
malleoli is more than 5 cm, candidatewill be declared unfit.
(xi) If the distance between the femoral condyles is within 10 cm the
candidate will be considered fit for Genu Varum (Bow Legs).
(xii) If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10 degrees and is
unaccompanied by any other deformity, the candidate will be
accepted as fit for Genu Recurvatum.
(xiii) True lesions of the hip joint will entail rejection.
20. Central Nervous System
(a) A candidate giving a history of mental illness/ psychological afflictions
requires detailed investigation and psychiatric referral. Such cases will be
rejected. Family history and prior history of using medication is also
relevant.
(b) History of insomnia, nightmares or frequent sleepwalking or bed-wetting,
when recurrent or persistent, will be a cause for rejection.
(c) Severe or ‘throbbing’ Headache and Migraine. Common types of recurrent
headaches are those due to former head injury or migraine. Other forms of
occasional headache must be considered in relation to their probable cause.
A candidate with migraine, which was severe enough to make him consult a
doctor, will be a cause for rejection. Even a single attack of migraine with
visual disturbance or ‘Migrainous epilepsy’ is a bar to acceptance.
(d) History of epilepsy in a candidate is a cause for rejection. Convulsions/fits
after the age of five are also a cause for rejection. Convulsions in infancy
may not be of ominous nature provided it appears that the convulsions were
febrile convulsions and were not associated with any overt neurological
deficit. Causes of epilepsy include genetic factors, traumatic brain injury,
stroke,infection, demyelinating and degenerative disorders, birth defects,
substance abuse and withdrawal seizures. Seizures may masquerade as
“faints” and therefore the frequency and the conditions under which “faints”
took place must be elicited. Seizure attacks indicate unsuitability for flying,
whatever their apparent nature.
(e) History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat exhaustion
bars employment for Air Force duties, as it is an evidence of a faulty heat
regulating mechanism. A single severe attack of heat effects, provided the
62
history of exposure was severe, and no permanent sequelae were evident is,
by itself, not a reason for rejecting the candidate.
(f) A history of severe head injury or Concussion is a cause for rejection.The
degree of severity may be gauged from the history of duration of Post
Traumatic Amnesia (PTA). Other sequelae of head injury are post
concussion syndrome which has subjective symptoms of headache,
giddiness, insomnia, restlessness, irritability, poor concentration and
attention deficits; focal neurological deficit, and post traumatic epilepsy.
Post traumatic neuropsychological impairment can also occur which
includes deficits in attention concentration, information processing speeds,
mental flexibility and frontal lobe executive functions and psychosocial
functioning. Fracture of the skull will not be a cause for rejection unless
there is a history of associated intracranial damage or of depressed fracture
or loss of bone. When there is a history of severe injury or an associated
convulsive attack, an electroencephalogram will be carried out which must
be normal. Presence of burr holes will be cause for rejection for flying
duties, but not for ground duties. Each case is to be judged on individual
merits. Opinionof Neurosurgeon and Psychiatrist must be obtained before
acceptance.
(g) When a family history of Psychological Disorders like nervous breakdown,
mental disease, or suicide of a near relative is obtained, a careful
investigation of the personal past history from a psychological point of view
is to be obtained. While such a history per se is not a bar to Air Force
duties, any evidence of even the slightest psychological instability in the
personal history or present condition, will entail rejection.
(h) If a family history of epilepsy is admitted an attempt should be made to
determine its type. When the condition has occurred in a near (first degree)
relative, the candidate may be accepted, if he has no history of associated
disturbance of consciousness, neurological deficit or higher mentalfunctions
and his electroencephalogram is completely normal.
(j) The assessment of emotional stability must include family and personal
history, any indication of emotional instability under stress as evidenced by
the occurrence of undue emotionalism as a child or of any previous nervous
illness or breakdown. The presence of stammering, tic, nail biting,
excessive hyperhydrosis or restlessness during examination is indicative of
emotional instability.
(k) Candidates who are suffering from psychosis will be rejected. Drug
dependence in any form will also be a cause for rejection.
(l) Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are unfit for commissioning.
Juvenile and adult delinquency, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill
health will be causes for rejection. Particular attention will be paid to such
factors as unhappy childhood, poor family background, truancy, juvenile
and adult delinquency, poor employment and social maladjustment records,
history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill-health, particularly if these have
interfered with employment in the past.
(m) Any evident neurological deficit (Organic Nervous Conditions) will call for
rejection.
63
(m) Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of reciprocally innervated
muscle groups. Tremors occur in cases of excessive fright, anger, anxiety,
intense physical exertion, metabolic disturbances including
hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawl and toxic effects of lithium, smoking
(nicotine) and excessive tea, coffee. Other causes of coarse tremor are
Parkinsonism, cerebellar (intention) tremor, essential (familial) tremor,
tremors of neuropathy and postural or action tremors.
(o) Candidates with stammering will not be accepted for Air Force duties.
Careful assessment by ENT Specialist, Speech therapist, psychologist/
psychiatrist may be obtained in doubtful cases.
(p) Only those candidates for aircrew duties will be subjected to Basal
Electroencephalogram EEG examination. Those with following EEG
abnormalities in resting EEG or EEG under provocative techniques will be
rejected for aircrew duties:-
(i) Background Activity. Focal, excessive and high amplitude beta
activity/hemispherical asymmetry of more than 2.3 Hz/generalized
and focal runs of slow waves approaching background activity in
amplitude.
(ii) Hyperventilation. Paroxysmal spikes and slow waves/spikes/focal
spike pattern.
(iii) Photo Stimulation. Bilaterally synchronous or focal paroxysmal
spikes and slow waves persisting in post-photic stimulation
period/suppression or driving response over one hemisphere.
(q) Non specific EEG abnormality will be acceptable provided opinion of
Neuropsychiatrist/Neurophysician is obtained.In case an EEG is reported as
abnormal, the candidate would be referred to CHAF (B) for a
comprehensive evaluation by neurophysician followed by review by a
Board at IAM IAF.
21. Ear, Nose and Throat
(a) Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
(i) Obstruction to free breathing as a result of a marked septal deviation
is a cause for rejection. Post correction surgery with residual mild
deviation with adequate airway will be acceptable.
(ii) Any septal perforation will entail rejection.
(iii) Atrophic rhinitis will entail rejection.
(iv) Cases of allergic rhinitis will entail rejection for flying duties.
(v) Any infection of paranasal sinuses will be declared unfit. Such cases
will be accepted following successful treatment during Appeal
Medical Board.
64
(vi) Multiple polyposis will be a cause for rejection.
(b) Oral Cavity and Throat
(i) Candidates where tonsillectomy is indicated will be rejected. Such
candidates will be accepted after successful surgery during Appeal
Medical Board.
(ii) The presence of a cleft palate will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Any disabling condition of the pharynx or larynx including persistent
hoarseness of voice will entail rejection.
(c) Obstruction or insufficiency of eustachian tube function will be a cause for
rejection.
(d) The presence of tinnitus necessitates investigation of its duration,
localization, severity and possible causation. Persistent tinnitus is a cause
forrejection, as it is liable to become worse through exposure to noise and
may be a precursor to Otosclerosis and Meniere’s disease.
(e) Specific enquiry will be made for any susceptibility to motion sickness.
Such cases will be fully evaluated and, if found susceptible to motion
sickness, they will be rejected for flying duties.
(f) A candidate with a history of dizziness needs to be investigated thoroughly.
(g) Hearing loss
(i) Free field hearing loss is a cause for rejection.
(ii) Audiometric loss should not be greater than 20 db, in frequencies
between 250 and 8000 Hz. On the recommendation of an ENT
Specialist, an isolated unilateral hearing loss up to 30 db may be
condoned provided ENT examination is otherwise normal.
(h) A radical/modified radical mastoidectomy entails rejection even if
completely epithelialised and good hearing is preserved. Cases of cortical
mastoidectomy in the past with the tympanic membrane intact, normal
hearing and presenting no evidence of disease may be accepted.
(j) Cases of chronic otitis externa accompanied by exostoses or unduly narrow
meatiiwill be rejected. Exaggerated tortuosity of the canal, obliterating the
anterior view of the tympanic membrane will be a cause for rejection.
(k) Tympanoplasty Type I is acceptable twelve weeks after surgery, provided
ear clearance test in altitude chamber is normal. The following middle ear
conditions will entail rejection:-
(i) Attic, central or marginal perforation.
(ii) Tympanic membrane scar with marked retraction.
(iii) Tympanoplasty Type II onward but not Type I.
65
(iv) Calcareous plaques (tympanosclerosis) if occupying more than 1/3 of
pars tensa.
(v) Middle ear infections.
(vi) Granulation or polyp in external auditory canal.
(vii) Stapedectomy operation.
(l) Miscellaneous Ear Conditions. The following ear conditions will entail
rejection:-
(i) Otosclerosis.
(ii) Meniere‘s disease.
(iii) Vestibular dysfunction including nystagmus of vestibular origin.
(iv) Bell‘s palsy following ear infection.
22. Ophthalmic System
(a) Visual defects and medical ophthalmic conditions are amongst the major
causes of rejection for flying duties.
(b) Personal and Family History and External Examination.
(i) Squint and the need for spectacles for other reasons are frequently
hereditary and a family history may give valuable information on the
degree of deterioration to be anticipated. Candidates, who are wearing
spectacles or found to have defective vision, will be properly
assessed.
(ii) Ptosis interfering with vision or visual field is a cause for rejection till
surgical correction remains successful for a period of six months.
Candidates with uncontrollable blepharitis, particularly with loss of
eyelashes, are generally unsuitable and will be rejected. Severe cases
of blepharitis and chronic conjunctivitis will be assessed as
temporarily unfit until the response to treatment can be assessed.
(iii) Naso-lacrymal occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele entails
rejection, unless surgery produces relief lasting for a minimum of six
months.
(iv) Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis, and choroiditis) is frequently recurrent, and
candidates giving a history of or exhibiting this condition will be
carefully assessed. When there is evidence of permanent lesions such
candidates will be rejected.
(v) Corneal scars, opacities will be cause for rejection unless it does not
interfere with vision. Such cases will be carefully assessed before
acceptance, as many conditions are recurrent.
66
(vi) Cases with Lenticular opacities will be assessed carefully. As a
guideline any opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual
axis oris present in an area of 7 mm around the pupil, which may
cause glare phenomena, will not be considered fit. The propensity of
the opacities not to increase in number or size will also be a
consideration when deciding fitness.
(vii) Visual disturbances associated with headaches of a migrainous
typeare not a strictly ocular problem, and will be assessed
accordingly. Presence of diplopia or detection of nystagmus requires
proper examination, as they can be due to physiological reasons.
(viii) Night blindness is largely congenital but certain diseases of the eye
exhibit night blindness as an early symptom and hence, proper
investigations are necessary before final assessment. As tests for night
blindness are not routinely performed, a certificate to this effect that
the individual does not suffer from night blindness will be obtained in
every case. Certificate will be as per Appendix- B to the draft rules.
(ix) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any direction and undue
depression/ prominence of the eyeball requires proper assessment.
(c) The visual acuity and colour vision requirements are detailed in AppendixC to this rule. Those who do not meet these requirements will be rejected.
(d) If there is a strong family history of Myopia, particularly if it is established
that the visual defect is recent, if physical growth is still expected, or if the
fundus appearance is suggestive of progressive myopia, even if the visual
acuity is within the limit prescribed, the candidate will be declared unfit.
(e) Refractive Surgeries. Candidates who have undergone PRK (Photo
Refractive Keratotomy)/ LASIK (LASER In Situ Keratomileusis) may be
considered fit for commissioning in the Air Force all branches.
(f) The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post PRK/ LASIK
candidates:-
(i) PRK/ LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age
of 20 years.
(ii) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm
asmeasured by IOL master.
(iii) Atleast 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable
PRK/ LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.
(iv) The post PRK/ LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal
pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.
(v) Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to PRK/ LASIK
are to be excluded.
67
(g) Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not
permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract
surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
(h) Ocular Muscle Balance
(i) Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for
commissioning.
(ii) The assessment of latent squint or heterophoria in the case of aircrew
will be mainly based on the assessment of the fusion capacity. A
strong fusion sense ensures the maintenance of binocular vision in the
face of stress and fatigue. Hence, it is the main criterion for
acceptability.
(aa) Convergence.
(aaa) Objective Convergence. Average is from 6.5 to 8 cm. It is
poor at 10 cm and above.
(aab) Subjective Convergence (SC). This indicates the end point
of binocular vision under the stress of convergence. If the
subjective convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the
limit of objective convergence, the fusion capacity is poor.
This is specially so when the objective convergence is 10
cm and above.
(ab) Accommodation. In the case of myopes, accommodation should
be assessed with corrective glasses in position. The acceptable
values for accommodation in various age groups are given in
table below:-
Age in Yrs 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45
Accommodation
(in cm)
10-11 11-12 12.5-13.5 14-16 16-18.5 18.5-27
(j) Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration, anxiety,
fatigue, hypoxia, drugs and alcohol. The above tests will be considered
together for the final assessment. For example, cases just beyond the
maximum limits of the Maddox Rod test, but who show a good binocular
response, a good objective convergence with little difference from
subjective convergence, and full and rapid recovery on the cover tests may
be accepted. On the other hand, cases well within Maddox Rod test limits,
but who show little or no fusion capacity, incomplete or no recovery on the
cover tests, and poor subjective convergence will be rejected. Standards for
assessment of Ocular Muscle Balance are mentioned in Appendix- C to the
draft rules.
(k) Any clinical findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or fundus, which
is of pathological nature and likely to progress will be a cause for rejection.
This examination will be done by slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy under
mydriasis.
68
23. Haemopoietic System
(a) All candidates will be examined for clinical evidence of pallor (anaemia),
malnutrition, icterus, peripheral lymphadenopathy, purpura, petechiae/
ecchymoses and hepatosplenomegaly.
(b) In the event of laboratory confirmation of anaemia (<13g/dl in males),
further evaluation to ascertain type of anaemia and aetiology will be carried
out. This will include a complete haemogram (to include the PCV MCV,
MCH, MCHC, TRBC, TWBC, DLC, Platelet count, reticulocyte count and
ESR) and a peripheral blood smear. All the other tests to establish the
aetiology will be carried out, as required. Ultrasonography of abdomen for
gallstones, upper GI Endoscopy/ proctoscopy and hemoglobin
electrophoresis etc. will be done, as indicated, and the fitness of the
candidate, decided on the merit of each case.
(c) Candidates with mild microcytic hypochromic (Iron deficiency anaemia) or
dimorphic anaemia (Hb< 11.5g/dl in males), in the first instance, will be
made temporarily unfit for a period of 04 to 06 weeks followed by review
thereafter. These candidates can be accepted, if the complete haemogram
and PCV, peripheral smear results are within the normal range. Candidates
with macrocytic/megaloblastic anaemia will be assessed unfit.
(d) All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolytic anaemias (due to red
cell membrane defect or due to red cell enzyme deficiencies) and
haemoglobinopathies (Sickle cell disease, Beta Thalassaemia: Major,
Intermedia, Minor, Trait and Alpha Thalassaemia etc.) will be considered
unfit for service.
(e) In the presence of history of haemorrhage into the skin like ecchymosis/
petechiae, epistaxis, bleeding from gums and alimentary tract, persistent
bleeding after minor trauma or lacerations / tooth extraction and any family
history of haemophilia or other bleeding disorders a full evaluation will be
carried out. These cases will not be acceptable for entry to service. All
candidates with clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of
thrombocytopenia will be considered unfit for service.
(f) Candidates with history of haemophilia, von Willebrand’s disease, on
evaluation, will be declared unfit for service at entry level.
-x-x-x-x-x-x-x-

69
Appendix A
[Refers to Para 12]
Male Ideal Nude Weights for Different Age Groups and Heights for
NDA (Flying & Ground Duty) Candidates on Entry
(10% variation on higher side of average acceptable)
Height
(in cm)
Age Range (in Years) /
Weight (in Kgs)
15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19
152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5
70
Appendix B
[Refers to para 22 (b) (viii)]
Certificate Regarding Night Blindness
Name with Initials __________________________________________________
Batch No. _____________________ Chest No __________________________
I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not been any case of
night blindness in our family, and I do not suffer from it.
Date: ………………………………. (Signature of the candidate)
Countersigned by
(Name of Medical Officer)
Appendix C
[Refers to Para 22 (c)]
Visual Standards for NDA (Flying & Ground Duty)
Candidates on Entry
Sl
No
Branch Maximum Limits of
Refractive Error
Visual Acuity Errors Colour
Vision
1 F(P)
including
WSOs
Hypermetropia: + 2.0D
Sph Manifest Myopia: Nil
Retinoscopic myopia: –
0.5 in any meridian
permitted Astigmatism: +
0.75D Cyl (within + 2.0D
Max)
6/6 in one eye and
6/9 in other,
correctable to 6/6
only for
Hypermetropia
CP-I
2 Aircrew
other than
F(P)
Hypermetropia: +3.5D
Sph Myopia: -2.0D Sph
Astigmatism: + 0.75D
Cyl
6/24 in one eye and
6/36 in other,
correctable to 6/6
and 6/9
CP-I
3 Adm/
Adm
(ATC)/
Adm (FC)
Hypermetropia: + 3.5D
Sph Myopia: -3.5D Sph
Astigmatism: + 2.5D Cyl
in any meridian
Corrected visual
acuity should be
6/9 in each eye.
CP-II
4 AE(M)
AE(L)
Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D
Sph Myopia: -3.50 D Sph
Astigmatism: + 2.5D Cyl
in any meridian
Corrected visual
acuity should be
6/9 in each eye.
Wearing of glasses
will be compulsory
when advised
CP-II
5 Met Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D
Sph Myopia: -3.50 D Sph
Astigmatism: + 2.50 D
Cyl
Corrected visual
acuity should be
6/6 in the better eye
and 6/18 in the worse
eye. Wearing of
Glasses will be
compulsory.
CP-II
6 Accts/ Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Corrected visual CP-III
71
Lgs/Edn Sph Myopia: -3.50 D Sph
Astigmatism: + 2.50 D
Cyl
acuity should be
6/6 in the better eye
and 6/18 in the worse
eye. Wearing of
Glasses will be
compulsory.
Notes:
Note 1. Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Sl. Nos. 1 and 2 should
conform to the table given below:-
Standard of Ocular Muscle Balance for Flying Duties
Sl
No
Test Fit Temporary Unfit Permanently
Unfit
1 Maddox Rod
Test at 6
meters
Exo- 6 Prism
D Eso- 6
Prism D
Hyper- 1 Prism
D
Hypo- 1 Prism
D
Exo- Greater than 6
prism D Eso- Greater
than 6 prism D HyperGreater than 1 prism D
Hypo- Greater than 1
prism D
Uniocular
suppression
Hyper/Hypo
more than 2
prism D
2 Maddox Rod
Test at 33
cm
Exo-16 Prism
D Eso- 6 Prism
D Hyper- 1
Prism D Hypo1 Prism D
Exo- Greater than 16
prism D Eso- Greater
than 6 prism D HyperGreater than 1 prism D
Hypo- Greater than 1
prism D
Uniocular
suppression
Hyper/Hypo
more than 2
prism D
3 Hand held
Stereoscope
All of BSV
grades
Poor Fusional reserves Absence of
SMP, fusion
Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 15 cm with effort Greater than 15
cm with effort
5 Cover Test
for Distance
and Near
Latent
divergence
/convergence
recovery rapid
and complete
Compensated
heterophoria/ trophia
likely to improve with
treatment /persisting
even after treatment
Compensated
heterophoria
Note 2. Visual standards of Air Wing Cadets at NDA and Flt Cdts of F (P) at
AFA should conform to A1G1 F (P) standard (S1. No. 1)
Note 3. The Sph correction factors mentioned above will be inclusive of the
specified astigmatic correction factor. A minimum correction factor upto the
specified visual acuity standard can be accepted.

72
APPENDIX-V
(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)
1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian
will be required to sign :—
(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or
his son or ward shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or
other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which his
son or ward may sustain in the course of or as a result of the
training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course of
or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anesthesia
administered to him for the treatment of any injury received as
aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his dismissal
or discharge or withdrawal from National Defence Academy for
knowingly furnishing false particulars or suppressing material
information in his application for admission to the said National
Defence Academy or in the event of his being dismissed or
discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from the said,
National Defence Academy or for any reason not beyond the
control of the cadet, he does not complete the prescribed period of
training, or he, the cadet, does not accept a Commission if offered
as conventated above, then the Guarantors and the cadet shall
jointly and severally be liable to pay forthwith to Government in
cash sums as the Government shall fix but not exceeding such
expenses as shall have been incurred by the Government on
account of the Cadet on his training and all the money received by
the Cadets as pay and allowance from the Government together
with interest on the said money calculated at the rate in force for
Government loans.
2. The cost of training including accommodation, books,
uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be borne by the
Government. Parents or guardians of cadets, will, however, be
required to meet their pocket and other private expenses.
Normally these expenses are not likely to exceed Rs. 3000.00 p.m.
If in any case a cadets’s parents or guardian is unable to meet
wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs.
1000.00 p.m. for the period of training may be granted by the
Government whose parents income is less than Rs. 21,000/- per
month. Cadet whose parent’s or guardian’s income exceeds Rs.
21,000/- per month will not be liable for the assistance. If more
than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training at NDA,
IMA, OTA and corresponding training establishment in the Navy
and Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial
assistance.

The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having
financial assistance from the Government should immediately after
his son/ward having been finally selected for training at the
73
National Defence Academy submit an application through the
District Magistrate of his District who will forward the application
with his recommendation to the Commandant, National Defence
Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune-411023.
3. Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will
be required to deposit the following amount with the Commandant,
National Defence Academy, on their arrival there :—
(a) Pocket allowance for five months
@ Rs. 3000.00 per month.
Rs. 15000.00
(b) For items of clothing and equipment Rs. 21831.00
(c) Army Group Insurance Fund Rs. 7200.00
(d) Clothing items required at the time
of joining
Rs. 8681.00
(e) Incidental Expenditure during 1st
Semester
Rs. 7138.00
Total Rs. 59850.00
Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount
is refundable to the candidates in the event of financial aid being
sanctioned to them :—
(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 2000.00
at Rs. 400.00 per month
(Corresponding to Govt. Financial
Assistance)
(b) For items of clothing and equip- Rs. 13935.00
ment approximately
4. The following Scholarships/Financial Assistance are tenable at
the National Defence Academy.
(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIP—
This Scholarship is granted to cadets overall first in Academics of
Passing out Course. One time scholarship amount is Rs. 5000/-.
(2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—
This scholarship is of the value of Rs. 4800.00 per annum and
awarded to a MARATHA cadet who should be the son of an exserviceman. The scholarship is in addition to any financial
assistance from the Government.
(3) KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—Two
scholarships are awarded to cadets who obtain the highest
position amongst candidates from BIHAR. The value of each
scholarship is Rs. 37.00 per mensem tenable for a maximum
period of 4 years during the training at the National Defence
Academy, Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military
Academy, Dehra Dun and the Air Force Flying College; and Indian
74
Naval Academy, Ezhimala where the cadets may be sent for
training on completion of their training at the National Defence
Academy. The scholarship will, however, be continued subject to
maintaining good progress at the above institution.
(4) ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—Two
scholarships will be awarded to the cadets from ASSAM. The value
of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per mensem and is tenable for the
duration of a cadet’s stay at the National Defence Academy. The
scholarships will be awarded to the two best cadets from ASSAM
without any reference to the income of their parents. The cadets
who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other
financial assistance from the Government.
(5) UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT INCENTIVE SCHEME—
Uttar Pradesh Sainik Punarvas Nidhi, a Trust under Hon’ble
Governer of Uttar Pradesg has started a incentive scheme for
cadets joining NDA/IMA/OTA/AF Academy/Naval
Academy/Women Entry who are dependents of ex-servicemen uoto
JCO rank of Uttar Pradesh in which there is a provision of one
time grant of Rs. 25,000/- per candidate.

(6) KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—All male/female
cadets irrespective of gender and without any pre conditions to all
Kerala state cadets who are admitted to OTA, NDA, IMA, Naval
Academy, Air Force Academy, Armed Forces Medical College, RIMC
Schools, as a consolation shall be granted Rs. 2,00,000/- only
and those who get admission to Military, Naval and Air Force
Nursing Schools shall be granted a a consolation Rs. 1,00,000/-.
(7) BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZE—This is cash prize of Rs.
500.00 available for the best BENGALI boy in each Course of the
Academy. Application Forms are available with the Commandant,
National Defence Academy.
(8) ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—These
scholarships, one for the Army, one for the Navy and the other for
the Air Force of the value of Rs. 80.00 each per month will be
awarded by the Government of Orissa to the cadets who are
permanent residents of the State of ORISSA. Two of these
scholarships will be awarded on the basis of merit-cum-means of
the cadets whose parent’s or guardian’s income does not exceed
Rs. 5,000/- per annum and the other one will be given to the best
cadet irrespective of his parent’s or guardian’s income.
(9) State Government
West Bengal
*Income
Initial Lump sum
grant
Scholarship per
semester
Amount
Low Middle High
5000/- 3750/
2500/-
1800/- 1350/-
900/-
Eligibility
(i) The cadet must be
Indian Citizen and the
cadet and/or his of/or
permanently domiciled in
the State of West Bengal.
(ii) The Cadet is not in
receipt of any other
financial assistance/
75
*Table Income group
Low – up to Rs. 9000/-pm
Middle – Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-
pm
High – Above 18000/-pm
grant from the Govt. of
India and/or the State
Government or any other
authority
excepting scholarship or
stipend received on merit.
(10) Goa Rs. 1000/- per month during the
period of training (subject to a maximum of
24 months or duration of the
course whichever is less) & one time outfit
allowance of Rs. 12,000/-
(i) The income limit of the
cadet’s parent/guardian
shall not exceed Rs.
15,000/- pm (Rs.
1,80,000/- per annum).
(ii) The income limit of
those belonging
to SC/ST/OBC
should not exceed
Rs. 37,500/- per month
(Rs. 4,50,000/- per
annum).
(iii) He should not be
receiving financial
assistance/freeship from
any other source.
(11) Nagaland Rs. 1,00,000/- one time
payment
Should be domicile of
Nagaland State.
(12) Manipur Rs. 1,00,000/- one time
payment
Should be domicile of
Manipur State.
(13) Arunachal
Pradesh
Scholarship Rs.1,000/-pm
One time outfit Allowance
Rs.12,000/-
Should be domicile of
Arunachal Pradesh State.
(14) Gujarat Scholarship Rs. 6,000/-
per annum
To the ward of Serving/Exservicemen (incl
Ex/Serving Officer) of
Native/
Domicile of Gujarat.
(15) Uttarakhand
(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/- pm for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand
domicile is paid to father/guardian of cadets (ExServicemen/Widow, through respective Zilla Sainik Kalyan
Officers.)
(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/- for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand
domicile is paid to father/guardian of cadets through Directorate of
Higher Education, Haldwani.
(16) Punjab Rs. 1,00,000/-(one time
payment)
Should be domicile of
Punjab State.
76
(17) State Govt.
Sikkim
Rs.1.5 lakhs for all Offrs
entry schemes

Award for successful
candidates of Sikkim for
all Officers’entry schemes.
(18) Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/- (One time
payment) – Second best all round Air Force cadet of VI term
(19) Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Pilot Officer
Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/- (One time
payment). Best all round Air Force cadet at the time of Passing Out
of VI term.

(20) HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT
SCHOLARSHIP—Four scholarships will be awarded to cadets from
HIMACHAL PRADESH. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00
per month during the first two years of training and Rs. 48.00 per
month during the third year of training. These scholarships will be
available to those cadets whose parent’s income is below Rs.
500.00 per month. No cadet in receipt of financial assistance from
the Government will be eligible for this scholarship.
(21) TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—he
Government of Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one scholarship
per course of the value of Rs. 30/- per month plus an outfit
allowance of Rs. 400/- (one only during the entire period of cadet’s
training) to be awarded to a cadet belonging to the State of TAMIL
NADU whose parent’s/guardian’s monthly income does not exceed
Rs. 500/-. The application by an eligible cadet can be made to the
Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.
(22) KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—The
Govt. of Karnataka has awarded scholarships to cadets from
Karnataka State who join the National Defence Academy. The
value of the scholarship shall be Rs. 1000/- (Rupees One
thousand) per month and outfit allowance of Rs. 12000/- in first
term.
(23) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIP—The Government of
Bihar has instituted at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/- per
month for entire period of six terms at the NDA and Rs. 650/- one
time towards clothing and equipment. The cadet awarded the
above merit scholarship would not be eligible for any other
scholarship or financial assistance from the Government. The
application by an eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant,
National Defence Academy on their arrival.
(24) FLAG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL
SCHOLARSHIP—Gp Capt. M Vashishta has instituted 3
scholarships of Rs. 125/- each per month at NDA for one term to
be awarded to the first three cadets in the order of merit on
77
completion of their first semester till end of second term. The
cadets in receipt of Govt. Financial Assistance will not be eligible
for the above scholarships. The application for eligible cadets can
be made to the Commandant, NDA on arrival.
(25) FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EXSERVICEMEN—MAHARASHTRA STATE
The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service officers/men who
are undergoing training as cadets at NDA will be given Rs.
50,000/- as one time incentive.
The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their
applications to their respective Zilla Sainik Welfare Office
alongwith the certificates obtained from the Academy. Terms and
conditions governing these scholarships are obtainable from the
Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune –
411 023.
(26) AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO
CANDIDATES OF HARYANA DOMICILE UNDER TRAINING AT
NDA.
The Haryana State Govt. has declared a cash award of Rs.
1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to every individual who successfully
completes the training at NDA/IMA/OTA and other Defence
Academies of National Status and domicile of State of Haryana.
(27) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT,
CHANDIGARH UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.
Chandigarh Administration has introduced the scheme for grant of
one time incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to the
cadets who are resident of UT, Chandigarh and joined NDA .
(28) SCHOLARSHIP/GRANT FOR NCT DELHI
The cadets undergoing training at NDA and who are bonafide residents of
NCT Delhi will get a monthly grant of Rs 2000/-. A bonafide resident would
means those cadets whose peranment home address recorded in the documents at
the time of joining NDA is that of National Capital Territory of Delhi ( and does
not include NCR). This would be needed to be supported with a copy of the
residence proof (Aadhaar Card, Voter Identity Card, Service Records of their
parent etc.)
5. Immediately after the selected candidates join the Academy, a
preliminary examination will be held in the following subjects:
(a) English;
(b) Mathematics;
(c) Science;
(d) Hindi.
The standard of the examination in the subjects at (a), (b) and (c)
will not be higher than that of the Higher Secondary Examination
78
of an Indian University or Board of Higher Secondary Education.
The paper in the subject at (d) is intended to test the standard
attained by the candidate in Hindi at the time of joining the
Academy.
Candidates are, therefore, advised not to neglect their
studies after the competitive examination.
TRAINING
6. The selected candidates for the three services viz, Army,
Navy and Air Force are given preliminary training both academic
and physical for a period of 3 years at the National Defence
Academy which is an Inter-Service Institution. The training during
the first two and half years is common to the cadets of three wings.
All the cadets on passing out will be awarded degrees from
Jawaharlal Nehru University Delhi as under:-
(a) Army Cadets – B.Sc/ B.Sc (Computer)/ B.A
(b) Naval Cadets – B. Tech Degree*
(c) Air Force Cadets – B. Tech Degree*/ B.Sc/B.Sc
(Computer)
Note* : All the cadets undergoing B.Sc/B.SC(Computer)/BA Degree
programme shall be awarded the degree on the successful
completion of Academics, Physical and Service Training at NDA.
All the cadets undergoing B Tech programme shall be awarded the
B.Tech degree on the subsequent Pre Commissioning Training
Academies/ Institutions/ Ships/ Air Craft.
The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given
preliminary training both academic and physical, for a period of 04
years at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2
Cadet Entry Scheme will be awarded a B. Tech Degree on
successful completion of training.
7. On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army
Cadets go to the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun, Naval
Cadets to Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force cadets
and Ground Duty-Non Tech streams to Air Force Academy,
Hyderabad and Air Force cadets of Ground Duty–Tech stream to
Air Force Technical College, Bengaluru.
8. At the I.M.A. Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen Cadets
and are given strenuous military training for a period of one year
aimed at turning them into officer capable of leading infantry Subunits. On successful completion of training Gentlemen Cadets are
granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt subject to being
medically fit in “SHAPE” one.
9. (a) The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch of
the Navy, on passing out from the National Defence Academy and
79
are given further training at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala for a
period of one year on successful completion of which they are
promoted to the rank of Sub Lieutenants.
(b) Selected candidates for the Naval Academy under (10+2
Cadet Entry Scheme) will be inducted as Cadets for four year
B.Tech course in Applied Electronics & Communication
Engineering (for Executive Branch), Mechanical Engineering (for
Engineering Branch including Naval Architect specialization) or
Electronics & Communication Engineering (for Electrical Branch)
as per Naval requirements. On completion of the course, B. Tech
Degree will be awarded by Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).
10. (a) Air Force Cadets receive flying training for a period of
1½ years. However, at the end of 1 year of training they are given
provisional Commission in the rank of Flying Officer. After
successful completion of further training of six months they are
absorbed as permanent commissioned officers on probation for a
period of one year.
(b) Air Force Ground Duties Branch Cadets receive
stream wise specialist training for a period of one year. At the end
of one year of training they are given provisional commission in the
rank of Flying Officer. Subsequently, they are absorbed as
permanent commissioned officers on probation of one year.

80
TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES
11. Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
(a) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training:-
Stipend to Gentlemen Cadets during the
entire duration of training in Service
academies i.e. during period at IMA.
Rs 56,100/-p.m.*
(Starting pay in
Level 10)
* On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the
Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of Level 10 and the
period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and
arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the
training period shall be paid to cadets.
(b) Pay
(i)
Rank Pay Level (in Rs.)
Lt to Maj Lt – Level 10 (56,100 – 1,77,500)
Capt – Level 10 B (61,300-
1,93,900)
Maj – Level 11 (69,400 –
2,07,200)
Lt Col to
Maj Gen
Lt Col – Level 12A (1,21,200 –
2,12,400)
Col – Level 13 (1,30,600-
2,15,900)
Brig – Level 13A (1,39,600-
2,17,600)
Maj Gen – Level 14 (1,44,200-
2,18,200)
Lt Gen
HAG Scale
Level 15 (1, 82, 200-2,24,100)
HAG+Scal
e
Level 16 (2,05,400 – 2,24,400)
VCOAS/Ar
my Cdr/
Lt
Gen(NFSG
)
Level 17 (2,25,000/-) (fixed)
COAS Level 18 (2,50,000/-) (fixed)

81
(ii) MSP to the officer is as follows:-
Military Service Pay(MSP) to
the officers from the rank of
Lt to Brig
Rs 15,500
p.m. fixed
(iii) Flying Allowance: The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the
Army Aviation Corps are entitled to flying allowance at Rs 25,000/-
p.m.
(iv) Other allowance:-
Dearness
Allowance
Admissible at the same rates and under the
same conditions as are applicable to the
civilian personnel from time to time.
Para Allce Rs 10,500/- pm
Para Reserve
Allce
Rs 2,625/- pm
Para Jump
Instructor
Allce
Rs 10,500/- pm
Project Allce Rs 3,400/- pm
Special
Forces Allce
Rs 25,000/- pm
Technical
Allce (Tier-I)
Rs 3,000/- pm
Technical
Allce (Tier-II)
Rs 4,500/- pm
(v) Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer
posted to Field Areas will be eligible for the following Field
Area allowances:-
Level Highly Active
Field Area
Allce
Field Area
Allce
Modified Field
Area Allce
Officers Rs 16,900/-
pm
Rs 10,500/-
pm
Rs 6,300/- pm
High Altitude Allowance
Level Category-I Category-II Category-III
Officers Rs 3,400/-
pm
Rs 5,300/- pm Rs 25,000/-
pm

82
Counter Insurgency Allowance
Level Counter
Insurgency
Allce in
Peace Area
Counter
Insurgency
Allce in Field
Area
Counter
Insurgency
Allce in
Modified Field
Area
Officers Rs 10,500/-
pm
Rs 16,900/-
pm
Rs 13,013/- pm
(vi) Siachen Allowance Rs 42,500/- per month.
(vii) Uniform allowance Rs 20,000/- per year.
(viii) Ration in Kind In peace and Field areas
(ix) Transport Allowance (TPTA)
Pay Level Higher TPTA Cities
(Rs. Per month)
Other Places
(Rs. Per month)
Officers Rs. 7200+DA
thereon
Rs. 3600+DA
thereon
(x) Children Education Allowance. Rs. 2250/- per month per
child for two eldest surviving only. CEA is admissible from
Nursery to 12th Class.
(xi) Hostel Subsidy. Rs. 6,750/- per month per child for two
eldest surviving only. CEA is admissible from Nursery to 12th
Class.
(xii) The following monetary benefits are available to the Cadets
(Direct)/NoKs in the event of invalidment on medical
grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes attributable to or
aggravated by military training :
(I) IN CASE OF DISABLEMENT
(i) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/- per month.
(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/- per month
shall be payable in addition for 100% of disability
during period of disablement subject to prorate
reduction in case the degree of disablement is less than
100%. No disability award shall be payable in cases
where the degree of disablement is less than 20%.
(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CCA) @ Rs 6750/- per
month for 100% disable on the recommendation of
Invaliding Medical Board (IBM).

83
(II) IN CASE OF DEATH
(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.
(ii) The Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9000/- per month to the
NoK.
(iii) The Ex-gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) / NoK, shall
be sanctioned purely on ex-gratia basis and the same shall
not be treated as pension for any purpose. However,
dearness relief at applicable rates shall be granted on
monthly ex-gratia as well as ex-gratia disability award.
12. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund provides insurance cover
of Rs. 15 lakh on payment of one time non-refundable premium of
Rs. 7,200/- by cadets from the date of joining for pre-commission
training i.e. for 3 years. If a cadet is relegated an additional
premium of Rs. 1,355/- per relegated term will be paid. For those
who are invalidated out by IMB on account of disability and not
entitled to any pension will be provided Rs.15 lakhs for 100 per
cent disability. This will be proportionately reduced to Rs 3 lakhs
for 20 per cent disability However, for less than 20 percent
disability, only an Ex-Gratia Grant of Rs. 50,000/- for first two
years of training and Rs. 1 lakh during the last third year of
training will be paid. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction
and due to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for
disability benefit and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, Cadets
withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled as undesirable or
leaving the Academy voluntarily will not be eligible for disability
benefits and Ex-Gratia. There is no saving component under the
scheme.

(b) The Gentlemen Cadets at IMA when in receipt of
stipend are insured for Rs. 75 lakh as applicable to officers of
regular Army. For those who are invalidated out by IMB account of
disability and not entitled to any pension will be provided Rs 25
lakhs for 100 percent disability. This will be proportionately
reduced to Rs 5 lakhs for 20 percent disability. However, for less
than 20% disability, an Ex-Gratia Grant of Rs. 50,000/- will be
paid. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to the
diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability
benefit and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, Lady/Gentlemen Cadets
withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled as an undesirable or
leaving the Academy voluntarily will not be eligible for disability
benefits and Ex-Gratia. Subscription at the rate of Rs. 5,000/- will
have to be paid in advance on monthly basis by Gentlemen Cadets to become
member under the main AGI Scheme as applicable to regular Army Officers.
The subscription for the relegated period would also be recovered
at the same rate.

84
13. PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:
S.N
o.
Army Navy Air Force Minimum
Reckonable
Commissioned
Service
required for
Substantive
Promotion
(a) Lieutenant Sub
Lieutenant
Flying Officer On Commission
(b) Captain Lieutenant Flight
Lieutenant
02 Years
(c) Major Lt.
Commander
Squadron
Leader
06 years
(d) Lieutenant
Colonel
Commander Wing
Commander
13 years
(e) Colonel(Selection
)
Captain
(Selection)
Group Captain
(Selection)
On Selection
(f) Colonel
(Time Scale)
Captain
(Time Scale)
Group Captain
(Time Scale)
26 years
(g) Brigadier Commodore Air
Commodore
On Selection
(h) Major General Rear
Admiral
Air Vice
Marshal
On Selection
(i) Lieutenant
General
Vice
Admiral
Air Marshal On Selection
(j) General Admiral Air Chief
Marshal
On Selection
14. RETIREMENT BENEFITS
Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be
admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.
15. LEAVE
Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in
force from time to time.
***